NEET
SET-01
1.The edible part of mango fruit is –
(A) outer fruit wall
(B) middle fruit wall
(C) Endofruit wall
(D) None of these
Answer: (B)
2. Mitosis occurs.
(A) in somatic cell
(B) In the reproductive cell
(C) In both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Answer: (A)
3. The process of forming fruits without fertilization is called
(A) Polycarpic
(B) Parthenocarpic
(C) Pomocarpic
(D) None of these
Answer: (B)
4. In which of the following internal fertilization does not occur
(A) bird
(B) Frog
(C) Mammal
(D) None of these
Answer: (B)
5. A type of dichotomy
(A) vegetative propagation
(B) Asexual reproduction is
(C) Sexual reproduction is
(D) None of these
Answer: (B)
6. Which of these is an egg?
(A) Echidna
(B) Kangaroo
(C) Cow
(D) None of these
Answer: (A)
7. These flower only once in their entire life.
(A) Bamboo
(B) Mango
(C) Palm
(D) None of these
Answer: (A)
8. Which of the following is diploid?
(A) Pollen
(B) egg
(C) (A) and (B)
(D) Zygote
Answer: (D)
9. The seeds of which fruit are eaten?
(A) Custard apple
(B) Litchi
(C) Nutmeg
(D) All of these
Answer: (D)
10. Homozygous is found in:
(A) Algae
(B) Angiosperms
(C) Gymnosperm
(D) All of these
Answer: (A)
11. Who among the following is the egg producer?
(A) snake
(B) Crocodile
(C) Hen
(D) All of these
Answer: (D)
12. Which of the following is a true result?
(A) Apple
(B) Pear
(C) Kajula
(D) Coconut
Answer: (D)
13. In what does reproduction take place through ‘budding’?
(A) Penicillium
(B) Paramecium
(C) Yeast
(D) All of these
Answer: (C)
14.Which of the following is a false result:
(A) Apple
(B) Mango
(C) Banana
(D) None of these
Answer: (A)
15. In which of these is dichroism found:
(A) Water hyacinth
(B) Lotus
(C) Amoeba
(D) snake
Answer: (C)
16. Gemules are formed
(A) In Hydra
(B) In sponge
(C) In the East
(D) All of these
Answer: (B)
17. The edible part of litchi is called?
(A) Tegmen
(B) Endosperm
(C) integument
(D) Beej Chola
Answer: (D)
18. What is fruit formation without fertilization called?
(A) decoupled matter
(B) Amorphogenesis
(C) Parthenogenesis
(D) All of these
Answer: (C)
19. Choose the correct one among the following:
(A) Zoospore of sponge
(B) Gymulus in Penicillium
(C) Conidia in algae
(D) Bud of Hydra
Answer: (D)
20. Grafting cannot take place in sugarcane because
(A) Vascular bundles are scattered.
(B) Phloem is on the inside of xylem.
(C) Reed plants are delicate.
(D) It is unable to bear injury.
Answer: (A)
21. For what is sexual reproduction responsible?
(A) To form the diploid state
(B) To create identical young ones
(C) No role in evolution
(D) To create haploid state
Answer: (A)
22. Mint propagates vegetatively:
(A) sucker
(B) runner
(C) offset
(D) rhizome
Answer: (A)
23. Possible life span of dog……. … It happens.
(A) 20 years
(B) 15 years
(C) 10 years
(D) 5 years
Answer: (A)
24. The scion is planted on the stock. On what will the fruits of a tree grafted in this way depend?
(A) scion
(B) stock
(C) (A), (B) both
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)
25. The process of fusion of haploid cells is called ………. They say.
(A) cell cycle
(B) Meiosis
(C) Mitosis
(D) conjugation (syngamy)
Answer: (D)
26. …………. Vegetative reproduction occurs by segments of leaves in?
(A) Agave and Kalanchoe
(B) Biofilm and Kalanchoe
(C) Asparagus and Bryophyllum
(D) Chrysanthemum and Agave
Answer ⇒ (B)
27. Flowers that bloom at night generally ………
(A) are light
(B) are smaller
(C) are brightly colored
(D) bloom in clusters
Answer: (B)
28. Hermaphrodite animal is:
(A) Hen
(B) snake
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Earthworm
Answer: (D)
29. Which of the following is a diploid structure?
(A) Egg
(B) Sperm
(C) Zygote
(D) All of these
Answer: (C)
30. The state between birth and natural death is called:
(A) life span
(B) Life cycle
(C) vegetative state
(D) all
Answer: (A)
31. Morphologically and genetically similar organisms are called:
(A) clone
(B) Somaclone
(C) Cosmids
(D) Cybrids
Answer: (A)
32. How does reproduction take place in amoeba?
(A) Conidia
(B) bud
(C) Jimmules
(D) By binary fission
Answer: (D)
33. Reproduction occurs in Penicillium:
(A) bud
(B) fragmentation
(C) Jimules
(D) Conidia
Answer: (D)
34. What is the menstrual cycle?
(A) Monkey
(B) Ape
(C) Human
(D) all
Answer: (D)
35. Which of the following does not have oestrous cycle?
(A) Cow
(B) Sheep
(C) Monkey’s
(D) dog
Answer: (C)
36. Who among the following is not hermaphrodite?
(A) Tapeworm
(B) Dog
(C) Leech
(D) Sponge
Answer ⇒ (B)
37. In which of the following water is not required for gamete transfer?
(A) Algae Chicago
(B) Bryophytes got done
(C) Pteridophytes
(D) Gymnosperm
Answer: (D)
38. The process of embryo development is called:
(A) viviparyo
(B) Parthenogenesis
(C) embryogenesis
(D) Sporogenesis
Answer: (C)
39. Accumulation of gametes is called:
(A) Pollination
(B) Syngamy someone
(C) Parthenogenesis
(D) Sporogenesis
Answer ⇒ (B)
40. Who among these is not monogamous?
(A) Cockroach
(B) Dog
(C) Cow
(D) Earthworm
Answer: (D)
41. The number of chromosomes in human gamete is :
(A) 21
(B) 23
(C) 44
(D) 46
Answer ⇒ (B)
42. What involves internal fertilization?
(A) Fish
(B) Amphibians
(C) Algae
(D) Angiosperms
Answer: (D)
43. In the process of fertilization, the ovule develops and forms a seed, while what develops from the carpel?
(A) Peri sperm
(B) Pericarp
(C) Testa
(D) None of these
Answer: (B)
44. Which of the following is not an egg:
(A) snake
(B) Hen
(C) Alligator
(D) human
Answer: (D)
45. Which of these flowers blooms only once in its lifetime?
(A) Bamboo
(B) Mango
(C) Litchi
(D) Berries
Answer: (A)
46. In which of the following flowers bloom only once in 12 years?
(A) Sunflower
(B) Peepal
(C) Blue Kurenji
(D) Neem
Answer: (C)
47. An example of rhizome is:
(A) Garlic
(B) Lemon
(C) Ginger
(D) Onion
Answer: (C)
48. Bud planting is an example of :
(A) vegetative reproduction
(B) Tissue culture
(C) Sexual reproduction.
(D) of scattering
Answer: (A)
49. In the fungus named Penicillium, asexual reproduction mainly occurs through which structure?
(A) Budding
(B) fragmentation
(C) Conidia
(D) Gemulus
Answer: (C)
50. Which of these absorbs oxygen by growing in stagnant water?
(A) Water hyacinth
(B) Hydrilla
(C) Lotus
(D) Paddy
Answer: (A)
51. Reproduction occurs by Gemma: –
(A) In higher order plants
(B) Direction in lower order animals
(C) In some bryophyta
(D) In mammals
Answer: (C)
52. Which word is used to describe the condition of monogamy?
(A) Homozygous
(B) Hermaphroditic
(C) Monogamous
(D) subjective couplet
Answer: (C)
53. The result of double fertilization is:
(A) Cotyledons
(B) nucellus
(C) Endosperm
(D) embryo
Answer: (C)
54. In which group are plants reproducing by spores like mosses and ferns generally kept?
(A) Sporophytes
(B) Thallophytes
(C) Cryptogames
(D) Biophytes
Answer: (C)
55. Pollination takes place in Cycas:
(A) In three cellular state
(B) In four cellular state
(C) In two cellular state
(D) in unicellular state
Answer: (A)
56. The phenomenon of anthesis is based on
(A) Pollen formation
(B) Pollen grain reaching the stigma
(C) Development of anther
(D) Opening of flower bud
Answer: (D)
57. Which of the following reproduces through the tip of the leaf?
(A) Walking Fern
(B) Sprout leaf plant
(C) Marchesia
(D) meat
Answer: (A)
58. Potato tubers have ‘eyes’:
(A) Flower buds
(B) shoot buds
(C) axillary buds
(D) Root buds
Answer: (C)
59. Which of the following plants is hermaphroditic?
(A) Marchensia
(B) Pinus
(C) Cycas
(D) Papaya
Answer: (B)
60. Who among the following is monogamous?
(A) Mustard
(B) Udhul
(C) Papaya
(D) None of these
Answer: (C)
61. The method of formation of egg is called:
(A) Eggogenesis
(B) Ovary
(C) Ovulation
(D) female reproduction
Answer: (A)
62. The mechanism of sperm formation is called:
(A) Spermatogenesis
(B) Female reproduction
(C) Gametogenesis
(D) organogenesis
Answer: (A)
63. How many organisms take part in asexual reproduction?
(A) one
(B) two
(C) three
(D) Not even one
Answer: (A)
64. Asexual reproduction can occur in plants by which of the following methods?
(A) Budding
(B) fragmentation
(C) Partition
(D) all
Answer: (A)
65. In which of the following ways does vegetative reproduction occur?
(A) Root
(B) Pillar
(C) leaf
(D) by all three
Answer: (D)
66. By what means does vegetative transmission take place in potato?
(A) Leaves
(B) Pillar
(C) root
(D) seeds
Answer: (B)
67. What is the arrival of pollen grains from anthers within the same fruit into the ovary called?
(A) Self pollination
(B) Ovulation
(C) cross pollination
(D) fertilization
Answer: (A)
68. What is the process of release of egg from the ovary called?
(A) Eggogenesis
(B) Ovulation
(C) Menstrual cycle
(D) Spermatogenesis
Answer: (B)
69. Where does fertilization of the egg take place in the human female?
(A) in the ovary
(B) in the uterus
(C) work in the vagina
(D) in the fallopian tube
Answer: (D)
70. In which reproductive organ is sperm stored in human male?
(A) penis
(B) vas deferens
(C) Epididymis
(D) testicles
Answer: (C)
71. Gamete contains set of chromosomes:
(A) 2n
(B) 3n
(C) 4n
(D) n
Answer: (D)
72. How many parents take part in the creation of living organisms in asexual reproduction?
(A) one
(B) two
(C) three
(D) four
Answer: (A)
73. What is formed by the fusion of the gamete given by the mother and the gamete given by the father?
(A) coupler
(B) Zygote
(C) Offspring
(D) gills
Answer: (B)
74. The process by which male gametes and female gametes are formed is called:
(A) fertilization
(B) Embryogenesis
(C) Gametogenesis
(D) Morphogenesis
Answer: (C)
75. The three-layered structure inside which a new cavity has formed is called Archenteron.
(A) Blastula
(B) Gastula queen
(C) Cleavage
(D) None of these
Answer: (B)
76. The organism or plant in whose body both male and female reproductive organs are found is called:
(A) Spore
(B) Conjugation
(C) Bisexual
(D) monogamous
Answer: (C)
77. More variations are seen in which type of reproducing creatures?
(A) Sexual reproduction
(B) Asexual reproduction
(C) Gametogenesis
(D) vegetative
Answer: (A)
78. The process under which an organism continuously maintains its species by giving birth to identical children is called:
(A) Reproduction
(B) Sexual reproduction
(C) Asexual reproduction
(D) Gametogenesis
Answer: (A)
79. Animals, which give birth to babies, are called:
(A) egg
(B) uterus
(C) Amphibians (B)
(D) Bisexual
Answer: (B)
80. The entire process of development from egg to adult is called:
(A) Conception
(B) fertilization
(C) Addition
(D) Cleavage
Answer: (A)
81. Plasmotomy occurs in
(A) Hydra
(B) Obelia
(C) Opalina
(D) Plasmodium
Answer ⇒ (C and D)
82. The development of a seed from an unfertilized egg is called:
(A) Viviparous
(B) Parthenocopy
(C) Apogamy
(D) Apospory
Answer: (B)
83. Grafting is rarely successful in monocotyledons because :
(A) Monocotyledons have closed vascular bundles.
(B) Monocotyledons are cambiumless
(C) There is parallel venation
(D) More than one is correct
Answer: (B)
84. Aphyra larva is found in Aurelia. By what method is it manufactured?
(A) Regeneration
(B) Fragmentation
(C) breakage
(D) Strobilation
Answer: (D)
85. What is studied in gerontology?
(A) bird
(B) Bone
(C) Aging
(D) Earth
Answer: (C)
86. Which of the following has the ability to reproduce without fertilization?
(A) Spider
(B) Cow
(C) Bee
(D) Earthworm
Answer: (C)
87. The number of chromosomes in onion gametes is:
(A) 8
(B) 16
(C) 24
(D) 32
Answer: (B)
88. Endosperm in any gymnosperm is :
(A) haploid
(B) diploid
(C) Triple
(D) Quadruple
Answer: (C)
89. The ovaries of a flower are:
(A) haploid
(B) diploid
(C) Triple
(D) Quadruple
Answer: (B)
90. Where does meiosis occur in plants?
(A) root end
(B) Pollen
(C) ends of the stem
(D) anther
Answer: (D)
91. The construction of a complete body from a small part/piece is called:
(A) Morphallaxis
(B) epimorphosis
(C) Morphogenesis
(D) Metabolism
Answer: (A)
92. In what is double fertilization found?
(A) Angiosperms
(B) Gymnosperm
(C) Pteridophytes
(D) Bryophytes
Answer: (A)
93 .Natural parthenogenesis is found in
(A) fly
(B) In bee
(C) Mosquito
(D) All of these
Answer: (B)
94. By what means vegetative propagation takes place in Pistia?
(A) Stallone
(B) offset
(C) Runner
(D) Sucker
Answer: (B)
95. The number of chromosomes in meiocytes of house fly is :
(A) 8
(B) 12
(C) 34
(D) 21
Answer: (B)
96. In which of the following animals ovo-biparity occurs?
(A) Hen
(B) Platypus
(C) Rattle snake
(D) Echidna
Answer: (C)
97. Parthenogenesis is found in:
(A) In axolotl larva
(B) In Miracidium
(C) Cercaria
(D) In sporocyst and redia larva
Answer: (D)
98. If the male is different from the female in morphology, then it is called:
(A) Heterogamy
(B) Homogamy
(C) Sexual dimorphism
(D) Hermaphroditism
Answer: (C)
99. Paedogenesis is found in which larva?
(A) Tinea
(B) Fasciola
(C) Rana
(D) butterfly
Answer: (B)
100. In what is oblique dichroism found?
(A) Monocystis
(B) Plasmodium
(C) Planaria
(D) Ceratium
Answer: (D)
SET-02
1. After puberty in animals comes:
(A) vegetative state
(B) Reproductive stage
(C) adulthood
(D) old age
Answer: (B)
2. Which of the following is the correct order?
(A) Gametogenesis – Conjugation – Embryogenesis – Zygote
(B) Conjugation – Gametogenesis – Zygote – Embryogenesis Hero
(C) Gametogenesis – Conjugation – Zygote – Embryo production
(D) Zygote – Embryogenesis – Conjugation – Gametogenesis
Answer: (C)
3. What are the words Homothallic and Monoecious used for?
(A) For hermaphrodite state
(B) For unisexual state
(C) For staminate flowers
(D) For pistillate flowers
Answer: (A)
4. What is the oldest age of a parrot?
(A) 90 years
(B) 25 years
(C) 500 years
(D) 140 years
Answer: (D)
5.Which of the following plants is dioecious?
(A) Papaya
(B) Dates
(C) Coconut
(D) Any two of these
Answer: (C)
6.Which is a hermaphrodite animal?
(A) Earthworm, Hydra and Leech
(B) Cockroach, Ascaris and Hydra
(C) Earthworm, Ascaris and leech
(D) Ascaris, cockroach and hydra
Answer: (A)
7.Haploid chromosome is found in which?
(A) Zygote
(B) Coupler
(C) embryo
(D) seeds
Answer: (B)
8.How many gametes are there in the pollen tube in angiosperms?
(A) one
(B) two
(C) three
(D) many
Answer: (B)
9.In which situation is the word Dioecious used?
(A) Bisexual
(B) monogamous
(C) Bisexual
(D) Gynandromorph
Answer: (B)
10. Flowering occurs in bamboo species.
(A) Once in a lifetime
(B) Once in 12 years
(C) Every year
(D) Twice in 50-100 years
Answer: (A)
11. The number of chromosomes in the meiocyte of Drosophila (Fruit fly) is:
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 8
Answer: (D)
12 .The lifespan of crocodile and may fly is respectively
(A) 15 years 1 week
(B) 30 years, 1 week
(C) 45 years, 1 month
(D) 60 years, 1 day
Answer: (D)
13.Nodes are called ‘eyes’ which form a new plant in which of the following?
(A) Ginger
(B) Bryophyllum
(C) Alocasia
(D) Potato
Answer: (D)
14. Motile ciliated spore is called:
(A) Aplanospores
(B) Conidia
(C) Zoospores
(D) Uspores
Answer: (C)
15. If two gametes look similar, then it is said:
(A) Isogametes
(B) Heterogametes
(C) Anisogametes
(D) Exogamy
Answer: (A)
16. The number of chromosomes in human meiosis cell (Melcyte) is:
(A) 40
(B) 42
(C) 44
(D) 46
Answer: (D)
17. No creature is immortal except an alien.
(A) unicellular organism
(B) Green plants
(C) Spose
(D) Cyanobacteria
Answer: (A)
18.Children who are almost identical to each other and are also identical to their parents are called:
(A) Twins
(B) makes copies
(C) Drones
(D) clone
Answer: (D)
19.The formation of gametes is called:
(A) Gametogenesis
(B) Cytokinesis
(C) Sporogenesis
(D) myocyte
Answer: (A)
20.Which of the following is not a hermaphroditic plant?
(A) Papaya
(B) Mustard
(C) Maize
(D) Udhul
Answer: (A)
21.What is it called when the offspring is produced from a single parent?
(A) Sexual reproduction
(B) Asexual reproduction
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) internal fertilization
Answer: (B)
22.Egg-laying
(A) Hen
(B) snake
(C) Crocodile
(D) All of these
Answer: (D)
23.is diploid
(A) egg
(B) Pollen
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Zygote
Answer: (D)
24.Which of the following animals is not hermaphrodite?
(A) Tapeworm
(B) Earthworm
(C) Housefly
(D) Leech
Answer: (C)
25.Which of the following is Acetabularia?
(A) single cell protein
(B) Algae
(C) Protozoa
(D) Bacteria
Answer: (B)
26. In which of the following plant species, seeds are produced through apogenesis?
(A) Asteraceae and grass
(C) Citrus and mango
(B) Mustard
(D) None of these
Answer: (A)
27. Which of these has been called the ‘terror of Bengal’
(A) Agave
(B) Water hyacinth
(C) Banana
(D) Bryophyllum
Answer: (B)
28. Estrus cycles are found in
(A) Cow
(B) sheep
(C) Dog
(D) All of these
Answer: (D)
29. An example of bulb is:
(A) Ginger
(B) Doob grass
(C) Onion
(D) Potato
Answer: (C)
30. Where does fertilization take place in mammals:
(A) Ovary
(B) resident part
(C) uterus
(D) Fallopian tube
Answer: (D)
31. Flowers which are pollinated by wind are called
(A) Insect pollination
(B) Wind pollinated
(C) Wind pollinated
(D) None of these
Answer ⇒ (B)
32. Incomparable flowers are definitely
(A) Self-pollinated
(B) cross pollinated
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Answer: (A)
33. Entomophilus is the medium of pollination in flowers.
(A) Ant
(B) Insect
(C) bird
(D) air
Answer ⇒ (B)
34. Coconut contains liquid and pulpy substance.
(A) embryo
(B) Endothelial granule
(C) Endosperm
(D) None of these
Answer: (C)
35. The primary sperm cells of humans (primary spermatocytes) contain number of autosomes.
(A) 44
(B) 46
(C) 23
(D) 40
Answer: (A)
36. How many chromosomes are there in the endosperm of flowering plants?
(A)n
(B) 2n
(C) 3n
(D) 4n
Answer: (C)
37. What is the process of gamete formation called?
(A) Eggogenesis
(B) Gametogenesis
(C) vegetative division
(D) None of these
Answer ⇒ (B)
38. Where are stomata found in Hydrilla?
(A) on leaves
(B) also on the stem
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Answer: (D)
39. The outer layer of pollen grain is made up of:
(A) Pectocellulose
(B) Lignocellulose
(C) Sporopollenin
(D) Pollen Kit
Answer: (C)
40. Non-pollinated flowers are:
(A) Insect pollinated
(B) Bat pollinated
(C) Self pollinated
(D) water pollinated
Answer: (C)
41. Egg set is made up of:
(A) egg cell
(B) supporting cell
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Antidiagonal cells
Answer: (C)
42. Cross-pollination by water is called:
(A) Wind-pollination
(B) Water-pollination
(C) Insect pollination
(D) All of these
Answer: (B)
43. In what stage is the body formed?
(A) Mitotic cell division
(B) Amitosis cell division
(C) Meiosis cell division
(D) None of these
Answer: (C)
44. Which of the following is initially interested in pollination on the stigma of the pollen grain?
(A)P
(B) Ca++
(C)Mo
(D) CI-
Answer ⇒ (B)
45. Auxin present in pollen helps in the growth of?
(A) Pollen tube and ovary
(B) Pollen tube only
(C) Only ovaries
(D) male gamete
Answer: (A)
46. Anther is related to:
(A) pollen production army
(B) In pollen development
(C) Opening of flower bud
(D) Reception of pollen by stigma
Answer: (C)
47. Formation and differentiation of pollen from anther is called:
(A) Megasporogenesis
(B) Microsporogenesis
(C) Spermeiogenesis
(D) double fertilization
Answer ⇒ (B)
48. In a Dithecous anther there is:
(A) 4 microsporangia
(B) 3 microsporangia
(C) 2 microsporangia
(D) 1 microsporangia
Answer: (A)
49. In which meiosis takes place in the anther?
(A) in endothecium cell
(B) in pollen
(C) in tapetal cell
(D) Spore in mother cell
Answer: (D)
50. In what is pollen produced?
(A) Anther
(B) stigma
(C) fiber
(D) Pollen sac
Answer: (D)
51. Pollen is:
(A) haploid
(B) diploid
(C) Triple
(D) Quadruple
Answer: (A)
52. Sexual reproduction was discovered in flowering plants.
(A) Camarines
(B) Navaschin
(C) Strasbourg
(D) Maheshwari
Answer: (A)
53. The function of tapetum is:
(A) Security
(B) Nutrition
(C) Respiration
(D. ALL OF THE ABOVE
Answer: (B)
54. The process of combination of haploid cells occurs:
(A) cell cycle
(B) Meiosis
(C) Mitosis
(D) Syngamy
Answer: (D)
55. The seed of which fruit is eaten?
(A) Nutmeg
(B) Litchi
(C) Custard apple
(D) All of these
Answer: (D)
56. Which of the following is an insectivorous plant?
(A) Drosera
(B) Nepenthes
(C) Both A and B
(D) Hydrilla
Answer: (C)
57. The number of nuclei taking part in double fertilization is:
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
Answer: (D)
58. In which endosperm becomes hard and cellulosic?
(A) Mango
(B) Coconut
(C) phytelephas (ivory plum)
(D) Randy’s
Answer: (C)
59. The milky water contained in green coconut (Dabh) is:
(A) liquid chalazae
(B) liquid nucellus grand nombre
(C) degenerated liquid free nuclear endosperm
(D) liquid female gametophyte
Answer: (C)
60. The number of chromosomes in a stem cell is 14. What will be its number in synergids?
(A) 14
(B) 21
(C) 7
(D) 28
Answer: (C)
61. The protein-rich endosperm in maize is called:
(A) apophysis
(B) Scutellum
(C) coleoptile
(D) aleurone wall
Answer: (D)
62. How many male gametes are formed from one meiotic cell division?
(A) 4
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 8
Answer: (A)
63. MMC has 24 chromosomes. The number of chromosomes in its endosperm will be:
(A) 12
(B) 24
(C) 36
(D) 48
Answer: (C)
64. The father of modern embryology is:
(A) Schleiden and Schwann
(B) Hertwig
(C) Aristotle
(D) Van Veer
Answer: (D)
65. Strobylanthus kunthiana (Neelakuranji) undergoes flowering once in 12 years, last year it flowered in September-October of 2006. In which hilly region is it found?
(A) Kerala and Karnataka
(B) Orissa
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Madhya Pradesh Mana
Answer: (A)
66. What is nourished by endosperm?
(A) Seed
(B) Fruit
(C) Endosperm
(D) embryo
Answer: (D)
67. Fertilization takes place in angiosperms:
(A) Nucellus
(B) in embryo sac
(C) In the ovary
(D) In ovule
Answer: (B)
68. What makes the covering between the seeds after fertilization?
(A) embryo sac
(B) integuments
(C) ovule
(D) chalazal region
Answer: (B)
69. Which of the following is necessary for fertilization?
(A) Corolla
(B) ovule
(C) Calyx
(D) Fruit
Answer: (B)
70. When entering the embryo sac, there are in the pollen tube:
(A) two male gametes
(B) two male nuclei
(C) four new gametes
(D) Three male gametes
Answer: (A)
71. In Vohra fertilization there is a combination of:
(A) One egg and two sperm
(B) Polar nucleus along with sperm nucleus and egg nucleus
(C) One male gamete with ogg and the other male gamete with synergid
(D) One male gamete with egg and the other male gamete with secondary nucleus.
Answer: (D)
72. What is the specialty of Vohra fertilization?
(A) Dicotyledons and monocotyledons/all angiosperms
(B) All gymnosperms
(C) Phanerogams
(D) Spermatophytes com
Answer: (A)
73. Tri-accumulation is:
(A) Storage of a male gamete with two polar nuclei in the embryo sac.
(B) Accumulation of a male gamete with three nuclei in the embryo sac.
(C) Accumulation of one male gamete with two synergids
(D) Three clusters in one embryo sac
Answer: (A)
74. Seeds are called the product of sexual reproduction because they
(A) are formed by combination of gametes
(B) Make a new plant
(C) can be stored for a long period
(D) Formed by combination of pollen tube.
Answer: (A)
75. Endosperm in angiosperms is:
(A) haploid
(B) diploid
(C) Triple
(D) Quadruple
Answer: (C)
76. Who first demonstrated sexual reproduction in plants?
(A) Kolreuter
(B) Camerarius
(C) Van Benden
(D) Nawaschin
Answer: (B)
77. In flowering plants, unisexual male flower is called:
(A) Pistillate
(B) Monoecious
(C) Dioecious
(D) Stamina
Answer: (D)
78. The fertile part of Stamen is :
(A) Anther
(B) Pollen filament
(C) connective tissue
(D) Ovule
Answer: (A)
79. What is the modified part of floral organ?
(A) of leaves
(B) Of branches
(C) Sporangia
(D) anterior meristems
Answer: (A)
80. Amphimixis means:
(A) Reaction between antifertilizin and fertilizin protein.
(B) Combination of male and female antinuclei
(C) Formation of storage cone by the egg.
(D) Piercing of egg by sperm
Answer: (B)
81. The stamen is divided into how many parts?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Answer: (B)
82. Which is the innermost layer of microsporangia?
(A) Epidermis
(B) Endothecium
(C) Tapetum
(D) middle layer
Answer: (C)
83. The male reproductive organ of a flower is called:
(A) gynoecium
(B) Poumang
(C) Corolla
(D) Others
Answer: (B)
84. The female reproductive organ of a flower is called:
(A) gynoecium
(B) Poumang
(C) Anther
(D) Stamens
Answer: (A)
85. What does the pollen grain represent?
(A) Male gametophyte
(B) Female gametophyte
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Answer: (A)
86. What is the outer coat of pollen made of?
(A) Cellulose
(B) Pectin
(C) Sporopollenin
(D) Tapetum
Answer: (C)
87. Which of the following is a part of the pistil?
(A) stigma
(B) Vartika
(C) Ovary
(D) All of these
Answer: (D)
88. Which of the following plants prevents self-pollination?
(A) Castor
(B) Maize
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Answer: (A)
89. What happens when gamete fusion is complete?
(A) Zygote is formed
(B) Triple/triple fusion takes place.
(C) Double fertilization occurs
(D) All the above tasks are done
Answer: (A)
90. Two types of fusion take place in an embryocyst, zygotic fusion and triple fusion. What is this phenomenon called?
(A) Triple fusion
(B) Double fertilization
(C) Endosperm
(D) None of these
Answer: (B)
91. Which of the following is a virtual fruit?
(A) Strawberry
(B) Walnut
(C) Apple
(D) All three of the above
Answer: (D)
92. What is the process of producing seeds without fertilization called?
(A) disintegration
(B) Pollination
(C) Triple fusion
(D) Others
Answer: (A)
93. Pollination by insects is called?
(A) Ornithophily
(B) Entomophily
(C) Hydrophily
(D) Chiropterophily
Answer: (B)
94. The male reproductive organ unit in a flowering plant is called:
(A) Stamens
(B) Pistil
(C) Pollen
(D) Pollen
Answer: (A)
95. The female reproductive organ unit in a flowering plant is called
(A) Pistil
(B) Stamens
(C) Pollen
(D) Others
Answer: (A)
96. The distinct opening or stoma in the outer shell of the pollen grain is called:
(A) outer cloak
(B) Anthra Chola
(C) Genital pore
(D) reproductive cell
Answer: (C)
97. When an anther is immature, it is a group of densely connected homogeneous cells, which is called
(A) Sporogenesis tissue or
(B) Microspores tetragonal
(C) Microsporogenesis
(D) Pollen
Answer: (A)
98. Pollen is a four-celled structure in which what is contained at the four corners?
(A) Microsporangium
(B) Pollen
(C) Tapetum
(D) Protoplasm
Answer: (A)
99. Which of the following is an aquatic grass?
(A) Vallisneria
(B) Hydrilla
(C) Zostera
(D) All of these
Answer: (C)
100. Which of the following is a part of the male flower?
(A) gynoecium
(B) Poumang
(C) Pistil
(D) ovary
Answer: (B)
SET-03
1.Which of the following is a part of the female vagina?
(A) gynoecium
(B) Poumang
(C) Stamens
(D) Pollen
Answer: (A)
2. Where are pollen sacs found?
(A) Anther
(B) Pushpasana
(C) Ovary
(D) group
Answer: (A)
3. Anatopous ovule is:
(A) straight
(B) Upside down
(C) round
(D) curve
Answer: (B)
4. There are some natural diseases between the anther and stigma of some flowers due to which pollination occurs with difficulty or does not occur at all, what are they called?
(A) Self-sterility
(B) Heterostyly
(C) Herkogamy
(D) Geigamy
Answer: (C)
5. What does endosperm originate from?
(A) From the pollen tube
(B) From microspores
(C) From microsporangia
(D) From megaspore
Answer: (D)
6. What is the inner wall of microsporangium called which is nutritious?
(A) Endothecium
(B) Intine
(C) Tapetum
(D) middle level
Answer: (C)
7. By whom is pollination done in Semolina?
(A) Bat
(B) Bird
(C) water
(D) air
Answer: (A)
8. Which of these is diploid?
(A) egg cells
(B) supporting cells
(C) Secondary nucleus
(D) Antipodal cells
Answer: (C)
9. In porogamy, through what does the pollen tube reach the endosperm?
(A) Chalaja League
(B) Integument hit
(C) Micropyloma
(D) penetrating all
Answer: (C)
10. In angiosperm plants, the secondary nucleus gets transformed during the formation of seeds.
(A) in the embryo
(B) in endosperm
(C) In cotyledons
(D) in the seed coat
Answer: (B)
11. Which of the following is not present in the anther wall?
(A) Endothecium
(B) Middle layers
(C) Tapetum
(D) Integument
Answer: (D)
12. Which of the following is not present in the embryo sac?
(A) Egg set
(B) Bipolar nucleus
(C) Megasporogenesis cell
(D) Antipodals
Answer: (C)
13. Perisperm is the remaining part of what?
(A) Nucellus
(B) embryo
(C) Endosperm
(D) integument
Answer: (A)
14. In which of the following aril is not found?
(A) Custard apple
(B) Litchi
(C) Mango
(D) Myristica
Answer: (C)
15. What is the specialty of pollen grains?
(A) Bryophytes and angiosperms
(B) Pteridophytes and angiosperms
(C) Angiosperms and Gymnosperms
(D) Angiosperms and fungi
Answer: (C)
16. The progeny obtained from cross-pollination shows:
(A) High degree of variability and important role in evolution
(B) Impotence
(C) recessive properties
(D) Homologous cum phenotypic isomorphism
Answer: (A)
17. Pollination occurs only when a pollen grain
(A) releases its sperm nuclei
(B) comes on the stigma
(C) is mature and will have 3 nuclei or
(D) Release its sperm nuclei and fertilize the egg and the polar nucleus
Answer: (B)
18. By whom does pollination take place in Anemophily?
(A) Bat
(B) Air
(C) bird
(D) Snail Nick
Answer: (B)
19. By whom does pollination take place in Entomophily?
(A) water
(B) Insect
(C) animals
(D) air
Answer: (B)
20. If the anther and stigma of a flower mature together then it is called:
(A) Allogamy
(B) Dichogamy
(C) Homogamy
(D) Syngamy
Answer: (C)
21. Cross-pollination is beneficial because its results are:
(A) Birth of a male child
(B) weak offspring
(C) Best progeny 14
(D) Formation of seeds
Answer: (C)
22. Deposit of pollen on the stigma of another flower of the same plant is called.
(A) Dichogamy
(B) Geitonogamy
(C) Xenogamy
(D) Hydrogamy
Answer: (B)
23. If the anther and stigma of a flower mature at different times, then it is called:
(A) decline
(B) dichogamy
(C) Herkogamy
(D) Cleistogamy
Answer: (B)
24. The state of maturing of the female genitalia of the same flower before the anther is called:
(A) Protogyny
(B) Protandry
(C) Heterogamy
(D) Autogamy
Answer: (A)
25. A typical example of cross-pollination is
(A) Wheat
(B) Tomato
(C) Potato
(D) Maize
Answer: (D)
26. Lever mechanism is found in pollination?
(A) Antirrhinum
(B) Ficus
(C) Wheat
(D) Salvia
Answer: (D)
27. Pollination provokes abscission of all floral organs, with the exception of:
(A) Anther
(B) Pistol
(C) Sepals
(D) Receptacles
Answer: (B)
28. To be self-pollinated, a flower must:
(A) Asexual
(B) monogamous
(C) monogamous
(D) Bisexual
Answer: (D)
29. What does anther indicate?
(A) Sporogonium
(B) Male gametophyte
(C) Male sporophyll
(D) Sporangium
Answer: (A)
30. From what does the developing pollen grain get nutrition?
(A) Tapetum
(B) endothecium
(C) middle level
(D) SMC
Answer: (A)
31.Pollen is not green because:
(A) It does not contain chloroplasts
(B) Plastids are destroyed
(C) Plastids are transformed into chromoplasts.
(D) Due to attraction by vectors
Answer: (A)
32.If there are 4-sporogenous cells in an anther, then the number of pollen grains will be :
(A) 4
(B) 8
(C) 16
(D) 12
Answer: (C)
33.The number of ploidy in a pollen grain (like Cyperus) is:
(A) 5n
(B) 3n
(C) n
(D) 2n
Answer: (C)
34.The way pollen grain is related to embryosac is in the same way:
(A) Sperm from egg
(B) Male gametophyte from female gametophyte.
(C) Male gametophyte from ovum
(D) sperm from female gametophyte
Answer: (B)
35.How many pollen mother cells will be formed from 1000 pollen grains?
(A) 200
(B) 250
(C) 300
(D) 100
Answer: (B)
36.The number of Microspore mother cells in Pollensac of an anther is
(A) diploid
(B) haploid
(C) Triple
(D) Quadruple
Answer: (A)
37.Pollen tube with pollen grains represents:
(A) Male sporophyte
(B) Male gametophyte
(C) Female sporophyte
(D) female gametophyte
Answer: (A)
38.How many nuclei are there in a mature protocell?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Answer: (B)
39.Pollen grains are yellow in color because they contain:
(A) Flavonoids and Carotenoids
(B) Sulphur
(C) Chromoplast
(D) Etiolin
Answer: (A)
40. What is the cytoplasm of pollen grain rich in?
(A) Fat and starch
(B) Protein
(C) Starch and Flavonoids
(D) DNA
Answer: (A)
41. Cross-pollination is better than self-pollination because it involves………….
(A) Better new individuals are produced
(B) New species are formed
(C) It induces parthenogenesis
(D) It is economically beneficial
Answer: (A)
42.Wind pollination occurs in…………..
(A) Histforen (Salvia)
(B) afstylfen (Vallisineria)
(C) Coconut
(D) Bottle Brush
Answer: (C)
43.In the production of pollen grains and microspores, microspore mother cell………
(A) one meiosis
(B) one mitosis
(C) One meiosis and one mitosis
(D) One meiosis and two mitosis
Answer: (D)
44.Which one is diploid?
(A) Pollen
(B) Egg
(C) Megaspore
(D) MMC
Answer: (D)
45.The tissue part inside the ovary which is associated with the ovules is called
(A) Funicle
(B) Hilum
(C) Placenta
(D) Chalaza
Answer: (A)
46.Select the odd one out in the following:
(A) Archaesporium
(B) Oogonium
(C) Ovule
(D) Antheridium
Answer: (C)
47.Micropyle is found in what?
(A) Ovule
(B) Seed
(C) atat
(D) 457
Answer: (C)
48.Female gametophyte represents :
(A) Ovule
(B) embryo sac
(C) Megaspore mother cell
(D) Megasporephyll
Answer: (B)
49. What does the female gametophyte of an angiosperm indicate?
(A) Egg
(B) Carpel
(C) Pollen grain
(D) Oospore
Answer: (A)
50. At the time of fertilization, the female gametophyte of a typical polygonum is:
(A) 8-nucleated 7-celled
(B) 7-nucleated 8-celled
(C) 4-nucleated, 4-celled
(D) 8-nucleated 8-celled
Answer: (A)
51. What is the specialty of Filiform device?
(A) Synergids
(B) Egg
(C) anther wall
(D) Antipodal cells
Answer: (A)
52.The haploid cell which forms embryo sac by mitosis is called:
(A) Megaspore mother cell
(B) Microspore mother cell
(C) Functional megaspore
(D) Non-functional megaspore
Answer: (C)
53.The largest cell of ovule is :
(A) MMC
(B) Variable cell size
(C) middle cell
(D) antipodal
Answer: (C)
54.The arrangement of the nucleus in a normal dicotyledon embryo sac is:
(A) 3 + 3 + 2
(B) 2 + 3 + 3
(C) 3 + 2 + 3
(D) 2 + 4 + 2
Answer: (C)
55. Tapetum which is a change in ovule is called:
(A) Amoeboid tapetum
(B) Glandular tapetum
(C) Integumentary tapetum
(D) Flagellar tapetum
Answer: (C)
56.What covers all four microspores of a tetrad in an angiosperm?
(A) Cellulose
(B) Sporopollenin
(C) Pactose
(D) Stamen
Answer: (D)
57.Male gametophyte of an angiosperm is:
(A) Microsporangium
(B) Nucellus
(C) Microspores
(D) Stamen
Answer: (C)
58.In a flowering plant, a mature gametophyte is formed from a pollen mother cell:
(A) By 3 mitosis
(B) By 1 meiosis and 3-point division
(C) By 1 meiosis and 2 mitosis
(D) By single meiosis
Answer: (C)
59.Pollen kit is made up chemically of:
(A) From protein
(B) From lipids and carotenoids
(C) Carbohydrates and Carotenoids
(D) From Sporopollenium
Answer: (B)
60. Is conducive to autogamy
(A) Homogamy
(B) Heterostyle
(C) dichogamy
(D) Autosterilization
Answer: (A)
61. What is Scutellum a part of?
(A) grass cotyledon and
(B) dicot cotyledon
(C) Maize endosperm
(D) pericarp
Answer: (A)
62. How many mitosis will be required to form 100 pollen grains?
(A) 100
(B) 50
(C) 25
(D) 20
Answer: (C)
63.Aryl is not found in which of these?
(A) Custard apple
(B) Litchi
(C) Mango
(D) Myristica
Answer: (C)
64. Which of the following combines with the male gamete to form endosperm?
(A) Unfertilized egg
(B) supporting cell
(C) Atypodalus
(D) Secondary nucleus
Answer: (D)
65. Flowers are generally wind pollinated.
(A) attractive
(B) small
(C) Colorless
(D) (B) and (C) both
Answer: (D)
66.What is pollination by ants called?
(A) Ornithophily
(B) Marmicophily
(C) Malacophily
(D) caproterophily
Answer: (B)
67.Generally endosperm in capsella is:
(A) haploid
(B) Found diploid
(C) Triple
(D) multiply
Answer: (C)
68. A typical angiosperm embryo sac is usually :
(A) unicellular
(B) two-cellular
(C) Five-cellular
(D) seven-celled
Answer: (D)
69.What is the structure found in the nucellus of the ovule, which is the last part of the sporophyte, called?
(A) Megaspore egg cell
(B) Microspore mother cell
(C) supporting cell
(D) None of these
Answer: (A)
70. After division of the primary endosperm nucleus into nuclear endosperm
(A) Cell wall is formed
(B) Cell wall is not formed. It is being said that
(C) One big and one small cell is formed
(D) None of these
Answer: (B)
71. In which case is polyembryony most prevalent?
(A) Gymnosperm
(B) Pteridophyte
(C) Angiosperms
(D) Bryophyte
Answer: (A)
72.Generally in a mature fertilized ovule, n, 2n and 3n positions are found, respectively.
(A) Endosperm, nucellus and egg
(B) In egg, antipodal and endosperm
(C) In integument, synergid and egg
(D) In egg, nucellus and endosperm
Answer: (D)
73.In orthotropous ovule there are ovule and divisions:
(A) Obliquely from the ovule circle
(B) At 90° to the ovule circle
(C) In a straight line from the ovule circle
(D) parallel to the ovule circle
Answer: (C)
74.Meiosis takes place in the ovule:
(A) in ovule
(B) Megaspore in mother cell
(C) In megaspore
(D) In Archesporium
Answer: (B)
75.What is the study of pollen and spores called?
(A) Palynology
(B) Morphology
(C) Phycology
(D) Cytology
Answer: (A)
76.Which vitamin is especially present in pollen grains?
(A) Vitamin B
(B) Vitamin A
(C) Vitamin D
(D) Vitamin C
Answer: (A)
77.The father of Indian angiosperm embryology is:
(A) B.M.Johariya
(B) B.G.L. Swamy
(C) R.N. Kapil
(D) P. Maheshwari
Answer: (D)
78.The germination of seeds in which the cotyledons come above the ground is called
(A) underground
(B) Earthquake
(C) living population
(D) None of these
Answer: (B)
79.The stalk of the ovule is called:
(A) Funicle
(B) Kerankal
(D) Pedicel
(C) Nucellus
Answer: (A)
80.The place where the ovule joins the micropyle:
(A) Chalaja
(B) nucellus
(C) Nucleolus
(D) nucleus
Answer: (D)
81.There are some natural barriers between the anther and stigma of some flowers due to which pollination occurs with difficulty or does not occur at all, what are they called?
(A) Self-sterility
(B) Heterostyly
(C) Herkogamy
(D) Geigamy
Answer: (C)
82. Egg apparatus contains:
(A) egg worship
(B) Egg and polar nucleus
(C) Egg and antipode cells
(D) Egg and supporting cells
Answer: (D)
83. In angiosperms the female gametophyte is called:
(A) Endosperm
(B) Embryo sac
(C) embryo
(D) Zygote
Answer: (B)
84.Which is the part of the plant in which there is generation within one another?
(A) Germinated pollen grain
(B) Seed
(C) Unfertilized ovule
(D) embryo
Answer: (B)
85.The most common type of ovule in angiosperms is:
(A) Amphitropas
(B) Atropas
(C) Anatropous
(D) Sarsinotropus
Answer: (C)
86.A plant species has 8 chromosomes in its supporting cells. Tell what will be the number of chromosomes from the cells of its aleurone layer?
(A) 16
(B) 24
(C) 32
(D) 8
Answer: (B)
87.The result of double fertilization is
(A) Cotyledons
(B) nucellus
(C) Endosperm
(D) embryo
Answer: (C)
88. Hypanthidium inflorescence is found in:
(A) Peepal
(B) Tulsi
(C) Teak
(D) Madar
Answer: (A)
89.In which of the following plants seeds are formed but not flowers?
(A) Maize
(B) Mint
(C) Peepal
(D) Pine
Answer: (D)
90.The fruit of the land is:
(A) Potato
(B) Peanut
(C) Onion
(D) Ginger
Answer: (B)
91.If a flower is brightly colored and secretes nectar, then it is probably
(A) is pollinated by wind
(B) is pollinated by insects
(C) is an insectivorous plant
(D) Will be an impotent flower
Answer: (B)
92.The seeds are eaten:
(A) Custard apple
(B) Apple
(C) orange
(D) All of these
Answer: (A)
93.The maximum number of chromosomes in a flowering plant is 2n=265. In the plant Littorosa, the minimum number is: –
(A) 2n = 4
(B) 2n = 14
(C) 2n = 2
(D) 2n = 16
Answer: (A)
94.There are 10 pairs of Ganasatra in Mecca. How many linkage groups will there be in it?
(A) 20
(B) 40
(C) 10
(D) 5
Answer: (C)
95.The outer layer of a pollen grain is made up of which of the following resistant substances?
(A) Tannin
(B) Pectocellulose
(C) Sporopollenin
(D) Lignin
Answer: (C)
96. If the body, embryo sac, micropyle and funicle of an ovule are in a straight line, then it is called:
(A) Orthotropous
(B) Amphiltropous
(C) Anatropous
(D) Campylotropous
Answer: (A)
97.If the ovule is bent and the embryo sac is horseshoe-shaped, then it is called:
(A) anatropous
(B) Circinotropous
(C) amphitropous
(D) Orthotropous
Answer: (C)
98.If the transfer of pollen occurs by wind then it is called:
(A) Anemophily
(B) Entomophily
(C) Mythophily
(D) Myrmecophily
Answer: (A)
99.Cleistogamy occurs in which of the following?
(A) Datura :
(B) Petunia
(C) Commelina
(D) Gladiolus
Answer: (C)
100.If pollination occurs between two flowers of the same plant, it is called:
(A) Gynogamy
(B) Getonogamy
(C) Porogamy
(D) Entomophily
Answer: (B)
SET-04
1.If pollination is done by a bee then it is called:
(A) Ornithophily
(B) Myrmecophily
(C) Entomophily
(D) Chiropterophily
Answer: (C)
2.Pollination by birds is called:
(A) Entomophily
(B) Myrmecophily
(C) Ornithophily
(D) Chiropterophily
Answer: (C)
3.The embryonal host cell of an angiosperm contains chromosomes. The number of chromosomes in its gametes will be
(A) 8
(B) 16
(C) 24
(D) 48
Answer: (A)
4.Which of the following is the correct result?
(A) Coconut
(B) Apple
(C) Pear
(D) Cashew
Answer: (A)
5.The edible part of litchi is:
(A) endo sperm
(B) Mesocarp
(C) Fleshy aril
(D) Pericarp
Answer: (C)
6.How many meiotic divisions are required to produce 400 seeds in a pea plant?
(A) 400
(B) 500
(C) 600
(D) 800
Answer: (B)
7. Formation of additional embryo from nucellus or integument is called:
(A) Polyspermy
(B) TUHICHTE
(C) Parthenocarp
(D) Polyembryony
Answer: (D)
8.Which of the following is not a part of Anther wall?
(A) endothecium
(B) endothelium
(C) tapetum
(D) middle layers
Answer: (B)
9.Egg apparatus is made of:
(A) egg cell
(B) synergids
(C) antipodals
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Answer: (D)
10.Which part of coconut endosperm is called liquid syncytium?
(A) Liquid endosperm of coconut seed
(B) endosperm TET
(C) outer layer of endosperm
(D) All of these
Answer: (A)
11.In whose seed is endosperm consumed by the developing embryo?
(A) Coconut
(B) Castor
(C) Peas
(D) Maize
Answer: (C)
12.The flowers of which of these are eaten?
(A) Custard apple
(B) Apple
(C) Orange
(D) Litchi
Answer: (B)
13.What is found in the central part of mammalian sperm?
(A) nucleus
(B) vacuole
(C) Mitochondria
(D) Centriole
Answer: (C)
14.What is fertilization?
(A) Combination of egg and male nucleus
(B) Combination of egg and secondary nucleus
(C) Combination of egg and syringed
(D) None of these
Answer: (A)
15.How many chromosomes are there in endosperm? (in flowering plants)
(A) n
(B) 2n
(C) 3n
(D) Both (A) and (C)
Answer: (C)
16.The central cell of the embryo sac is:
(A) Initial nucleus
(B) Secondary nucleus
(C) supporting cell
(D) (A) (B) Both
Answer: (B)
17.In which of the following water pollination occurs?
(A) Water hyacinth
(B) Lotus
(C) Hydrilla
(D) Both (B) and (C)
Answer: (C)
18.In plants with cross pollination, it definitely occurs.
(A) Self-pollination
(B) Cross-pollination
(C) both
(D) None of these
Answer: (A)
19. Sporogenesis is called
(A) Development and formation of spores
(B) Production of Mitospores
(C) Production of meiospores
(D) Formation of zygote and embryo
Answer: (A)
20.Monothecous anther containing two Microsporangia is found in?
(A) Brassica
(B) Coriander
(C) Legumes
(D) Hibiscus
Answer: (D)
21. What is studied in Polynology?
(A) Pollen
(B) Plum
(C) flower
(D) Fruit
Answer: (A)
22. Which of the following is a popular method of birth rate control?
(A) Tubectomy
(B) Vesektoomi
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Answer: (C)
23. Which of the following is a homologous organ of clitoris?
(A) vagina
(B) Gender
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Answer: (B)
24. Menstrual cycle is found
(A) In human female
(B) In female mammals
(C) In female primate
(D) None of these
Answer: (C)
25. Which of these has a high pitched voice?
(A) Men
(B) Woman
(C) Kinnar (Hijra/Chhakka)
(D) None of these
Answer: (B)
26. Eggs are produced in human women.
(A) in the uterus
(B) in the fallopian tube
(C) In ovarian follicle
(D) None of these
Answer: (C)
27. Who controls spermatogenesis?
(A) Androgen
(B) Estrogen
(C) L.H.
(D) None of these
Answer: (A)
28. Acrosome is a division of which of the following?
(A) Golgi body
(C) Middle part of human secretion
(B) Head of human sperm
(D) None of these
Answer: (B)
29. Estrogen and progesterone are secreted:
(A) Ovary
(B) testicles
(C) Placenta
(D) Kidney
Answer: (C)
30. Acrosome part is :
(A) D.N. A.
(B) R. N. A.
(C) Sperm
(D) All of these
Answer: (C)
31. Cervix is found in?
(A) Kidney
(B) Fallopian tube
(C) Between the body of the uterus and the vagina.
(D) in epididymis
Answer: (C)
32. Where is Estrogen secreted?
(A) Corpus luteum
(B) Membrane granular
(C) Ovary germinal epithelium
(D) Pituitary gland
Answer: (D)
33. What is the correct statement for cleavage?
(A) The size of the embryo increases
(B) cell size decreases
(C) cell size increases
(D) The size of the fetus decreases
Answer: (B)
34. Which is the correct statement for which period in the embryo of human female?
(A) Holoblastic and similar
(B) Meroblastic
(C) Holoblastic
(D) Diploblastic
Answer: (A)
35. Which of the following is the correct statement regarding menstrual cycle duration?
(A) Surgery of egg: 5th day
(B) Reconstruction of endometrium: 5-10th day
(C) Formation of nutrients by endometrium for implantation: 11-18th day
(D) Increase in progesterone level: 1-15th day
Answer: (B)
36. Sertoli cells are controlled by which hormone of pituitary?
(A) GH
(B) Prolactin
(C) LH
(D) FSH
Answer: (C)
37. The immediate cause of menstruation is the withdrawal of which hormone?
(A) FSH
(B) FSH-RH
(C) Progesterone
(D) Estrogen
Answer: (C)
38. What is the axial fiber of sperm made of?
(A) Proximal circle
(B) Distal circular
(C) Mitochondria
(D) nucleus
Answer: (B)
39. What type of placenta is found in humans?
(A) Chorionic
(B) Hemochorial
(C) Metadiscoidal
(D) All of these
Answer: (D)
40. In whose absence fertilization cannot occur?
(A) Sodium
(B) Potassium
(C) Calcium
(D) Iron
Answer: (C)
41. The first milk secretion from the mother after birth is called Colustrum. It is contained in
(A) IgA
(B) IgD
(C) IgE
(D) IgG
Answer: (A)
42. Prostaglandin is :
(A) Protein
(B) Carbohydrate
(C) Lipid
(D) unsaturated
Answer: (D)
43. The presence of Fructose by secretion of seminal vesicle shows in forensic examination?
(A) Syphilis
(B) AIDS
(C) Rape
(D) Hepatitis
Answer: (C)
44. Spermatogenesis is overwhelmed by what?
(A) FSH
(B) MSH
(C) ACTH
(D) HCG
Answer: (A)
45. How many sperm are formed from one primary sperm cell through spermatogenesis?
(A) 1
(B) 4
(C) 16
(D) 32
Answer: (B)
46. What is not present in the cytoplasm of egg? what to say
(A) Ribosome
(B) Mitochondria pen
(C) Golgi body
(D) Centrosome
Answer: (D)
47. By which method does the transformation of spermatids into spermatozoa occur?
(A) Spermia
(B) Spermatogenesis
(C) Spermiogenesis
(D) Spermatosis
Answer: (C)
48. Which is the symbol enzyme clinical test used for prostate cancer?
(A) Amylase
(B) Alkaline phosphatase
(C) Y-GT pass
(D) Acid phosphatase
Answer: (B)
49. Where does the signal for parturition begin?
(A) Placenta
(B) Placenta and fully developed fetus
(C) by oxytocin secreted from the mother’s pituitary
(D) By a fully developed fetus
Answer: (B)
50. In which month of pregnancy does the fetus become mobile and hair grows on the head?
(A) Fourth month
(B) fifth month
(C) Sixth month
(D) third month
Answer: (B)
51. The part of the fallopian tube closest to the ovary is:
(A) Isthmus
(B) Ifdibulma
(C) Cervical
(D) Ampulla
Answer: (A)
52. What is true for blastocyst in a female?
(A) It forms the placenta before implantation.
(B) Implanted three days after ovulation
(C) Takes nutrients from the wall of the uterus after implantation.
(D) With implantation the trophoblast is implanted by the cell.
Answer: (D)
53. In which secretion are fructose, calcium and enzymes found the most?
(A) Male accessory gland
(B) liver
(C) Pancreas
(D) salivary gland
Answer: (A)
54. What is formed by the combination of male gamete and female gamete? Yes
(A) Egg
(B) Sperm
(C) semen
(D) Zygote
Answer: (D)
55. Which one of the following is found in men:
(A) uterus
(B) vagina
(C) Labia majora
(D) Copper
Answer: (C)
56. Where do male hormones originate from?
(A) Ovary
(B) testicles
(C) liver
(D) stomach
Answer: (B)
57. In mammals, the testicles descend into the scrotum:
(A) For spermatogenesis
(B) For fertilization
(C) For the development of reproductive organs
(D) For the development of visceral organs
Answer: (A)
58. Sperm produces a substance containing an enzyme to dissolve the egg shell. it is called
(A) Hyaluronic acid
(B) Hyaluronidase
(C) Androgemon
(D) Diastage
Answer: (B)
59. Whose cavity is antrum?
(A) Ovary
(B) Graafian vesicle
(C) Blastula
(D) Gastrala
Answer: (B)
60. In response to which hormone do secondary sexual characteristics develop in women?
(A) Relaxin
(B) Progesterone
(C) Estrogen
(D) Gonadotropin
Answer: (C)
61. The hormone responsible for ovulation and development of corpus luteum is:
(A) FSH
(B) LHC
(C) LTH
(D) ICSH
Answer: (B)
62. Bartholin’s gland is:
(A) On the edges of the vase defense
(B) On the sides of the vagina
(C) On the tail of birds
(D) On the head of amphibians
Answer: (B)
63. The phase of the menstrual cycle which ends on 7-8 days is called:
(A) Menstruation
(B) Luteal phase
(C) Ovulation phase
(D) follicular phase
Answer: (D)
64. Which is not of mesodermal origin?
(A) Nervous system
(B) Circulatory system
(C) muscular system
(D) Skeletal system
Answer: (A)
65. The plate increases in thickness in response to what?
(A) Oxytocin
(B) Estrogen
(C) LH
(D) Relaxin
Answer: (B)
66. Which of the following does longitudinal binary fission?
(A) Euglena
(B) Plasmodium
(C) Planaria
(D) Paramecium
Answer: (A)
67. If there are 10 chromosomes in the megaspore matrix, then how many properties will there be in the aleurone layer?
(A) 10
(B) 15
(C) 20
(D) 25
Answer: (B)
68. If in a plant species there are 8 chromosomes in the antegrade cell, then how many chromosomes will there be in its aleurone level?
(A) 16
(B) 24
(C) 32
(D) 8
Answer: (B)
69. What is related to men?
(A) Oral tablets
(B) ovariectomy
(C) Vasectomy
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)
70. In producing test tube babies:
(A) Fertilization is external and embryo is formed internally.
(B) Fertilization occurs internally and embryo formation occurs externally.
(C) Both fertilization and embryo formation take place inside.
(D) Both fertilization and embryo formation are external.
Answer: (A)
71. One method of sterilization is:
(A) IUDCB
(B) diaphragm
(C) Vasectomy
(D) loop
Answer: (C)
72. Which of the following is a mechanical barrier used in birth control?
(A) Copper T
(B) diaphragm
(C) Delcon sheet
(D) loop
Answer: (B)
73. In which of the following the velocity decreases drastically:
(A) Azoospermia
(B) Polyspermia
(C) Oligospermia
(D) Decrease in spontaneous motility of sperms in semen (asthenospermia)
Answer: (D)
74. By which test can genetic and physiological defects in a child be studied?
(A) Amniocentesis
(B) Erythroblastosis
(C) Angiogram
(D) Clotting test
Answer: (A)
75. What is it called when the offspring is produced from a single parent?
(A) Sexual reproduction
(B) Asexual reproduction
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Internal fertilization
Answer: (B)
76. In what does reproduction take place through budding?
(A) Yeast
(B) Paramecium
(C) Penicillium
(D) All of these
Answer: (A)
77. What is the number of chromosomes in human gametes?
(A) 21
(B) 23
(C) 44
(D) 46
Answer: (B)
78. Egg breeder is –
(A) Hen
(B) snake
(C) Crocodile
(D) All of these
Answer: (D)
79. Diploid is:
(A) egg
(B) Pollen
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Zygote
Answer: (D)
80. Who controls spermatogenesis?
(A) Estrogen
(B) LH
(C) Androgen
(D) None of these
Answer: (C)
81. Hormones not related to menstrual cycle
(A) LH
(B) FSH
(C) Estradiol
(D) TSH
Answer: (D)
82. The period of conception in humans is in days:
(A) 200
(B) 250
(C) 260
(D) 2705
Answer: (D)
83. What is not present in a male?
(A) Bulbourethral gland
(B) Bertholin’s gland
(C) Prostate
(D) Cowper’s gland
Answer: (B)
84. What type of cleavage occurs in the human female embryo?
(A) Holoblastic and similar
(B) Meroblastic
(C) Holoblastic and unequal
(D) Diploblastic
Answer: (A)
85. Bursting of follicles and coming out of ova is called:
(A) copulation
(B) conjugation
(C) ovulation
(D) oviposition
Answer: (C)
86. What provides nutrition to the developing sperm?
(A) Interstitial cells
(B) spermatogonia
(C) spermatocytes
(D) Sertoli cell
Answer: (D)
87. What is the scrotum related to?
(A) Ovary
(B) liver
(C) Testicle
(D) kidney
Answer: (C)
88. Which is an accessory reproductive gland?
(A) seminal gland
(B) Prostate gland
(C) Copper gland
(D) all
Answer: (D)
89. Where is Corpus Spongiosum muscle found?
(A) testicle
(B) penis
(C) Ovary
(D) kidney
Answer: (B)
90. From what are all the tissues formed in the embryonic stage?
(A) Ectoderm
(B) Mesoderm
(C) Endoderm
(D) Stem cells
Answer: (D)
91. What are the kidneys and reproductive organs formed from?
(A) endoderm
(B) Mesoderm
(C) ectoderm
(D) ecto-mesoderm
Answer: (B)
92. What is the covering of tunica albuginea?
(A) penis
(B) testicles
(C) Ovary
(D) testicular sac
Answer: (B)
93. Clitoris is the homologous organ of?
(A) Scrotum
(B) penis
(C) Ovary
(D) Valbha
Answer: (B)
94. Where is Fertilizer protein found?
(A) on acrosome
(B) On the sperm head
(C) On the surface of sperm
(D) on egg membrane
Answer: (C)
95. What secretes the hormones estrogen and progesterone?
(A) Placenta
(B) Egg
(C) Testicle
(D) kidney
Answer: (A)
96. Where are male hormones produced in mammals?
(A) in the liver
(B) in the testicles
(C) in the kidney
(D) in the lungs
Answer: (B)
97. Ovulation occurs during each menstrual cycle:
(A) of two ova
(B) of an egg
(C) More than two ova
(D) Eggs are not released
Answer: (B)
98. Short-lived endocrine gland functions in the following:
(A) Ovary
(B) testicles
(C) Graphy follicle
(D) corpus luteum
Answer: (D)
99. The number of sperms formed from primary spermatocyte is:
(A) 8
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 1
Answer: (B)
100. The process of reproduction takes place in organisms:
(A) To increase the number of organisms
(B) To maintain the continuity of life on earth
(C) To maintain the creatures of one’s own species
(D) (A), (B) and (C) all three
Answer: (D)
SET-05
1.The last part of the oviduct is called:
(A) Isthmus
(B) Ampulla
(C) Fimbriae
(D) Infundibulum
Answer: (A)
2. Angular processes in the infundibulum are called:
(A) fimbri
(B) Ampulla
(C) Isthmus
(D) None of these
Answer: (A)
3. The vaginal opening is usually covered with a thin membrane which is called:
(A) Clitoris
(B) Majora
(C) Isthmus
(D) Hymen
Answer: (D)
4. The sequence of hormones secreted from the beginning of menstruation is:
(A) FSH, progesterone, estrogen
(B) Estrogen, FSH, Progesterone
(C) FSH, estrogen, progesterone
(D) Estrogen, Progesterone, FSH
Answer: (C)
5. The 16 cellular stage of the embryo is called:
(A) Morula
(B) Blastomere
(C) Blastula
(D) Gastrula
Answer: (A)
6. Human placenta is:
(A) Hemochorial
(B) Syndesmochorial
(C) Yellow corpus
(D) Haemoendothelial
Answer: (A)
7. Through placenta:
(A) The embryo is attached to the mother’s umbilical cord
(B) Mother’s blood is provided to the fetus
(C) The fetus receives nutrition from the mother’s blood.
(D) The embryo is surrounded by membranes
Answer: (C)
8. Gamete formation is called:
(A) Gametogenesis
(B) Cytokinesis
(C) Sporogenesis
(D) myocyte
Answer: (A)
9. Eye lens is formed:
(A) from ectoderm
(B) From mesoderm
(C) from endoderm
(D) From ectoderm and mesoderm
Answer: (A)
10.The correct sequence of spermatogenic stages that produce sperm in the testis of an adult human being is :
(A) Spermatocyte-spermatogonia-spermatid-sperm
(B) Spermatid-spermatocyte-spermatogonia-sperm
(C) Spermatocyte-spermatid-spermatogonia-sperm.
(D) Spermatogonia-spermatocyte-spermatid-sperm
Answer: (D)
11. Parturition occurs after implantation, it means:
(A) separation of embryos
(B) Development of embryo
(C) Process of birth
(D) contraction of the uterus
Answer: (C)
12. Bursting of follicles and coming out of ova is called:
(A) sexual intercourse
(B) Conjugation
(C) Ovulation
(D) ovulation
Answer: (C)
13. From what does the developed sperm get nutrition?
(A) intracellular cell
(B) Spematogonium
(C) Sperm cell
(D) Sertoli cell
Answer: (D)
14. Testicles in Cryptorchidism:
(A) is taken out by operation
(B) Testicles do not develop in the embryo
(C) The testicles are incapable of producing sperm.
(D) The testicle is unable to move into the scrotum.
Answer: (D)
15. By which cord is the testicle connected to the scrotal sac in humans?
(A) Gubernaculum
(B) Ligament
(C) Spermatic cord
(D) Spemann
Answer: (A)
16. Who is the father of embryology?
(A) Hippocrates
(B) Pander
(C) Aristotle
(D) Spemann
Answer: (C)
17. From what does the vas deferens originate in humans?
(A) cauda epididymis
(B) caput epididymis
(C) corpora cavernosa
(D) glomus majorityet
Answer: (A)
18. What is the storage and nutrition of sperm in humans?
(A) testicle
(B) vasa efferentia
(C) Epididymis
(D) spermatic cord
Answer: (C)
19. The hormone secreting cell in the testis is:
(A) spermatogonia
(B) spermatocyte
(C) sustentacular cell
(D) Leydig cells
Answer: (D)
20. Sertoli cells are found in:
(A) Progesterone is secreted in the ovaries.
(B) Adrenaline hormone is secreted in the adrenal cortex.
(C) Nourishes the spermatic duct and germ cells.
(D) Cholecystokinin is secreted in the pancreas.
Answer: (C)
21. The pH of human semen is:
(A) 4.5 – 5.5
(B) 6.5 – 6.8
(C) 7.3 – 7.5
(D) 8.2 – 8.5
Answer: (C)
22.Which of the following is the primary reproductive organ?
(A) scrotum
(B) penis
(C) Testicle
(D) Prostate
Answer: (C)
23.The life span of egg is
(A) 48 hours
(B) 12 hours
(C) 24 hours
(D) 8 hours
Answer: (C)
24.What does the endometrium cover?
(A) Bladder
(B) vagina
(C) uterus
(D) oviduct
Answer: (C)
25.Which gland in female is similar to prostate?
(A) Perineal gland
(B) mammary gland
(C) Paraurethral gland
(D) Cowper’s gland
Answer: (C)
26.What does the corpus luteum turn into when it is unable to conceive?
(A) Corpus haemorrhagicum
(B) Corpus albicans
(C) Corpus cavernosum
(D) Corpus spongiosum
Answer: (B)
27.Hysterectomy means surgical removal of:
(A) Vaginal
(B) oviduct
(C) Uterine
(D) ovary
Answer: (C)
28.What is Clitoris similar to in females?
(A) Homologous to male penis
(B) Similar to male penis
(C) Vestigeal organ
(D) Homologous to prostate
Answer: (A)
29.What is the mammary gland a modification of?
(A) Oil gland
(B) sweat gland
(C) Cowper’s gland
(D) Bartholin’s gland
Answer: (A)
30.Contains the human egg when it is released from the ovary.
(A) A Y-chromosome
(B) Two X-chromosomes
(C) One X-chromosome
(D) XY-chromosome
Answer: (C)
31.What is the nuclear genetic material found in a sperm?
(A) Acrosome
(B) head
(C) Middle grinding
(D) tail
Answer: (B)
32. What cannot happen to a sperm without acrosome?
(A) It cannot take food
(B) Cannot circulate
(C) Cannot pierce the seminal vesicle
(D) Cannot make a hole in the egg.
Answer: (D)
33.The conversion of spermatid into spermatozoa is called:
(A) Spermatogenesis
(B) Spermeiogenesis
(C) Spermatocytogenesis
(D) Gametogenesis
Answer: (B)
34.A primary sperm cell is :
(A) diploid
(B) haploid
(C) Triple
(D) multiply
Answer: (A)
35. How many sperm and egg cells can be formed from 25 primary sperm cells and 25 primary egg cells?
(A) 100 sperm and 100 eggs
(B) 100 sperm and 50 eggs
(C) 100 sperm and 25 eggs
(D) 50 sperm and 25 eggs
Answer: (C)
36.What is acrosome formed from?
(A) centriole
(B) Golgi body
(C) Mitochondria
(D) nucleus
Answer: (B)
37.The arrangement of microtubules in the sperm tail is:
(A) 9+0
(B) 9+2
(C) 7+0
(D) 7+2
Answer: (A)
38.The last moment of formation of sperm from spermatid is:
(A) Formation of acrosome
(B) Formation of microtubules
(C) tail formation
(D) degradation of cytoplasm
Answer: (B)
39.Where is the arrangement of annular mitochondria (Nebenkern) around the axial fiber?
(A) Head
(B) middle piece
(C) end piece of tail
(D) Main piece of tail
Answer: (B)
40. How many secondary sperm cells will be required to produce 400 sperm?
(A) 100
(B) 200
(C) 40
(D) 400
Answer: (B)
41. Human egg is almost yolkless, it is called:
(A) Microlecithal
(B) Alecithal
(C) Macrolecithal
(D) Mesolecithal
Answer: (B)
42.Yolk is found in a Telolecithal egg:
(A) On both heads
(B) at one end
(C) in the middle
(D) in the cytoplasm of the entire egg
Answer: (B)
43.Cortical granules present in the cortex of egg are mainly found in
(A) Lipid
(B) Protein
(C) Glycogen
(D) mucopolysaccharides
Answer: (A)
44.If the yolk is distributed evenly then the eggs are like this:
(A) Isolecithal
(B) Mesolecithal
(C) Macrolecithal
(D) Centrolecithal
Answer: (A)
45.Yoke construction is called:
(A) Histogenesis
(B) Glycogenesis
(C) Oogenesis
(D) Proteolysis
Answer: (A)
46. Ovulation is possible with the help of which hormone?
(A) LH
(B) FSH
(C) Estrogen
(D) Progesterone
Answer: (A)
47. The growth and maturation of Graafian cyst is controlled by what?
(A) FSH-LH
(B) FSH-LTH
(C) ACTH-LH
(D) GH-ADH
Answer: (A)
48 .How many eggs and sperm will be formed from 100 secondary egg cells and 200 secondary sperm cells at the time of gametogenesis?
(A) 50 eggs, 100 sperm
(B) 100 eggs, 400 sperm
(C) 100 eggs, 100 sperm
(D) 200 eggs, 200 sperm
Answer: (B)
49. Antifertilizin is a protein, which is found in :
(A) On egg membrane
(B) vitelline ficcit
(C) On the middle piece of sperm
(D) On the anterior head part of the sperm
Answer: (D)
50. Fertilizin is a glycoprotein, which is found in :
(A) On the surface of egg membrane
(B) On sperm
(C) On the wall of the uterus
(D) on the wall of the spermatic cord
Answer: (A)
51. Tail of sperm at the time of fertilization
(A) enters the egg
(B) remains outside the egg
(C) Reaches the plasma membrane of the egg.
(D) reaches the cytoplasm of the egg
Answer: (B)
52. Which hormone is present in the mother’s urine after pregnancy?
(A) LH
(B) Progesterone
(C) FSH
(D) HCG
Answer: (D)
53. In what sense is cleavage different from mitosis?
(A) It occurs in all the cells of the body
(B) It occurs in the zygote
(C) It forms identical daughter cells
(D) It occurs only in arachnids
Answer: (B)
54. Cleavage occurs in mammalian egg:
(A) Meroblastic
(B) Holoblastic
(C) Unequal
(D) Spiral
Answer: (B)
55. Indeterminate cleavage is found in what?
(A) Earthworm
(B) Vertebrate
(C) Nirij
(D) Leech
Answer: (D)
56. When does the replacement of fertilized egg take place in the uterus of a female?
(A) Two months after fertilization
(B) Only after one month of fertilization
(C) Three weeks after fertilization
(D) Seven days after fertilization
Answer: (D)
57. Innercell mass is the precursor of?
(A) external level
(B) middle level
(C) inter level
(D) complete embryo
Answer: (D)
58. If the endodern cell is removed in the gastrula stage of the egg, then what will not be formed in the new organism?
(A) eye
(B) Heart
(C) Eye and brain
(D) internal organs
Answer: (D)
59.What is the lens and retina of vertebrates made of?
(A) from ectoderm
(B) from endoderm
(C) From both ectoderm and endoderm
(D) From Mesoderm
Answer: (A)
60.What makes up the digestive system, liver and trachea?
(A) Archeteron
(B) Blastocoel
(C) from endoderm
(D) from ectoderm
Answer: (C)
61.Mesoderm is formed in all of the following except one:
(A) muscular system
(B) Nervous system
(C) Transportation system
(D) of genitalia
Answer: (B)
62.In the embryo of mammals, blood flow in the umbilical cord occurs:
(A) 50% maternal and 50% fetal
(B) 100% Fetal
(C) 100% Material
(D) 75% maternal and 25% fetal
Answer: (B)
63.The embryo gets nutrition before implantation:
(A) From Ovary
(B) From the oviduct
(C) From uterine secretions
(D) From its own yolk
Answer: (D)
64.Haemochorial placenta is found in :
(A) In Shashak
(B) in dogs
(C) In horse
(D) In humans
Answer: (D)
65.Whose embryo is nourished like a parasite?
(A) In bird
(B) In amphibians
(C) In reptiles
(D) In mammals
Answer: (D)
66.When does Decidua come out of the uterus?
(A) With the birth of a child
(B) After the birth of the child
(C) Before the birth of the child
(D) at the time of monthly flow
Answer: (B)
67.Conception period is:
(A) Between birth and puberty
(B) Between embryo formation and conception
(C) Between fertilization and child birth
(D) Between fertilization and pregnancy
Answer: (C)
68.Which of the following sequence of levels occurs in the ovum from outside to inside?
(A) Zona pellucida, yellow membrane and corona radiata
(B) Zona pellucida, corona radiata and corpus luteum
(C) Corona radiata, zona pellucida and yellow membrane
(D) Yellow membrane, zona pellucida and corona radiata
Answer: (C)
69.The first movement of the fetus and the appearance of hair on its head are usually experienced during which month of pregnancy?
(A) fourth month
(B) fifth month
(C) Sixth month
(D) third month
Answer: (B)
70.What is fertilization that occurs outside the body called?
(A) in vitro
(B) In Vivo
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Answer: (A)
71.Stertoli cells are found in:
(A) in the testicles
(B) in the uterus
(C) In the ovary
(D) in the liver
Answer: (B)
72.Acrosome is a division of which of the following?
(A) Head of human sperm
(B) Middle part of human sperm
(C) Early oocyte
(D) blastocyst
Answer: (A)
73.The total number of eggs produced in the entire lifetime of a healthy woman is
(A) 4000
(B) 400
(C) 40
(D) 365
Answer: (B)
74.The main reason for Copper-T being an effective and intrauterine device in the uterus is
(A) Decrease in fertilization ability of sperms
(B) Increase in phagocytic activity of sperms due to release of copper ions in the uterus.
(C) Decrease in sperm mobility
(D) None of these
Answer: (C)
75.Adaptive radiation of the amphibians of Australia is an example of which of the following?
(A) Divergent evolution
(B) Convergent evolution
(C) Saltation
(D) None of these
Answer: (D)
objective question
76. Which of the following is a natural solution to population control?
(A) Hunting
(B) Parasitism
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Answer: (C)
77. Which of the following is a popular method of birth rate control?
(A) Vasectomy
(B) Tubectomy
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Answer: (C)
78. Which of the following does Copper-T prevent?
(A) fertilization
(B) Ovulation
(C) semen fall
(D) implantation
Answer: (B)
79. The process of surgical sterilization in women is called:
(A) Tubectomy
(B) Spermectomy
(C) Transplantation
(D) barrier
Answer: (A)
80. Which of the following is a sexually transmitted disease?
(A) Malaria
(B) AIDS
(C) Dengue
(D) None of these
Answer: (B)
81. Sexually transmitted diseases are:
(A) Measles
(B) TB
(C) Gonorrhea
(D) Typhoid
Answer: (C)
82. The average failure rate of intrauterine technique is :
(A) 23%
(B) 20%
(C) 1%
(D) 4%
Answer: (D)
83. What precautions are needed for reproductive health?
(A) Protection from sexually transmitted diseases
(B) Abortion
(C) Proper care of pregnant woman
(D) All of these
Answer: (D)
84. The result of population explosion is:
(A) Decline in income
(B) Degradation of land
(C) Depletion of minerals
(D) All of these
Answer: (D)
85. Hormonal contraceptive pill is used for population control:
(A) Mala-D
(B) Mala N
(C) friend
(D) All of these
Answer: (D)
86. The surgical method of stopping fertilization is called:
(A) Vascetomy
(B) tubectomy
(C) MTP
(D) all
Answer: (D)
87. Which of the following is a sexually transmitted disease?
(A) Typhoid
(B) Cholera
(C) Malaria
(D) Syphilis
Answer: (D)
88. When was the first census conducted in India?
(A) In 1851
(B) In 1872
(C) In 1921
(D) in 1951
Answer: (D)
89. Rapid decline in population due to high death rate is called:
(A) Population density
(B) Population decline
(C) Population explosion
(D. ALL OF THE ABOVE
Answer: (B)
90. ‘Saheli’, which is a female contraceptive pill, is used for:
(A) daily
(B) Weekly
(C) quarter
(D) monthly
Answer: (B)
91. RU-486 medicine is used for:
(A) In contraception
(B) Amniocentesis
(C) As a factor in abortion
(D) As a mutagen
Answer: (C)
92. The first human population explosion was caused by:
(A) Agriculture
(B) Industrialization
(C) short life marriage
(D) Change in civilization
Answer: (C)
93. What does oral contraception prevent in females?
(A) Ovulation
(B) fertilization
(C) Planting
(D) Entry of sperm into the vagina
Answer: (D)
94.The most suitable method of birth control is:
(A) Abortion
(B) Oral tablets
(C) semen consumption
(D) Sterilization
Answer: (D)
95. Which contraceptive pill has been prepared by the Central Drug Research Institute?
(A) Mala-D
(B) Joint tablet
(C) friend
(D) detention
Answer: (C)
96. Which of the following is not a natural method of birth control?
(A) external ejaculation
(B) periodic abstinence
(C) Vasectomy
(D) Breastfeeding amenorrhea
Answer: (C)
97. The study of population is called:
(A) Calography
(B) Psychobiology
(C) Biography
(D) Demography
Answer: (D)
98. What are the measures for birth control?
(A) Hormonal methods
(B) Natural methods
(C) Mechanical methods
(D) All of these
Answer: (D)
99. What is true about the test tube baby:
(A) Fertilization in female genitalia and growth in test tube
(B) Keeping the pre-born baby in an incubator
(C) Fertilization outside the genitals and development in the uterus.
(D) Fertilization and development outside the uterus.
Answer: (C)
100. Test tube baby is a technology in which:
(A) Zygote is taken from the oviduct and cultured, then it is cultured.
(B) Taking the egg, then fertilizing it and planting it
(C) Fusion of sperm and egg occurs and development of zygote occurs.
(D) None of these
Answer: (B)
SET-06
1.Which of the following is a hormonereleasing IUCD?
(A) Lips loop
(B) Multiload 375
(C) CuT
(D)LNG-20
Answer: (D)
2. “Morning after pills” can prevent pregnancy if it is taken within ……… hours.
(A) 50
(B) 60
(C) 30
(D) 72
Answer: (D)
3. Candidiasis is caused by:
(A) Public License
(B) Vaginal yeast
(C) Pin worm
(D) Giant amoeba
Answer: (B)
4. What is Adropause equivalent to in male?
(A) Androgen binding protein
(B) Female menopause
(C) Prostaglandin
(D) Androgen
Answer: (B)
5. The most appropriate test for syphilis is:
(A) Elisa
(B) PCR
(C) VDRL
(D) DNA hybridization
Answer: (C)
6. Which chemical method is used for birth rate control?
(A) Condom
(B) Loop
(C) Jelly Cream
(D) diaphragm
Answer: (C)
7. Which of the following is mechanical technology? To prevent pregnancy and for IUCD:
(A) Copper-T
(B) composite tablet
(C) Foam
(D) Abortive pill
Answer: (A)
8. Which of the following mechanical techniques is applied on the cervix for pregnancy?
(A) diaphragm
(B) Condom
(C) Loop
(D) Copper-T
Answer: (A)
9. What is meant by progesterone contained in the contraceptive pill?
(A) Preventing ovulation
(B) Preventing fertilization
(C) Preventing implantation of the zygote.
(D) Preventing cleavage
Answer: (A)
10. How does a birth control pill prevent ovulation?
(A) Blocking the fallopian tube
(B) By inhibiting FSH and LH
(C) By increasing FSH and LH secretion
(D) Immediately destroy the released ovum.
Answer: (B)
11. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is used to test what?
(A) Genital herpes
(B) Malaria
(C) Small pox
(D) Measles
Answer: (A)
12. What is Gonorrhoea?
(A) Bacterial disease
(B) Sexual disease
(C) S.T.D.
(D) All of these
Answer: (D)
13. Which barrier technique is used to control birth rate?
(A) Condom
(B) vaginal pouch
(C) diaphragm
(D) All of these
Answer: (D)
14. In which part of the body is sperm killed by spermicide?
(A) vagina
(B) Cervical
(C) Fallopian tube
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Answer: (D)
15. Where is Gonorrhoea and Syphillis found most?
(A) In African countries
(B) In European countries
(C) All over the world
(D) In Asian countries
Answer: (C)
16. Which of the following is a sexually transmitted disease?
(A) Typhoid
(B) Tetanus
(C) Leprosy
(D) Hepatitis-B
Answer: (D)
17. Genital warts is a viral disease, which is caused by what?
(A) By Chlamydia trachomatis
(B) By Trichomonas baginalis
(C) By Treponema pallidum
(D) By human papilloma virus
Answer: (D)
18. When did the family planning program start in India?
(A) In 1951
(B) In 1960
(C) In 1970
(D) in 1980
Answer: (A)
19. Due to over population
(A) Per capita income will decrease
(B) Per capita income will increase
(C) The health of the general public will improve.
(D) All of these
Answer: (A)
20. Method of cutting and tying the vas deferens for family planning.
(A) Tubectomy
(B) ovarectomyosigarh
(C) vasectomies
(D) castrectomy
Answer: (C)
21. Which disease is detected by Australian antigen test?
(A) AIDS
(B) Hepatitis B
(C) Genital warts
(D) Chancroid
Answer: (B)
22. The best drug for AIDS is:
(A) acyclovir
(B) didenosine olo
(C) zidovudine
(D) tetracycline
Answer: (C)
23. Which method of sex determination is most misused?
(A) Clotting test
(B) Amniocentesis
(C) Erythroblastosis
(D) Angiogram
Answer: (B)
24. Copper-T Prevents
(A) Fertilization
(B) ovulation
(C) Formation of embryos on the walls of the uterus.
(D) Obstruction in the reproductive duct.
Answer: (A)
25. Which of the following is a viral disease?
(A) flu
(B) Polio
(C) AIDS
(D) All of these
Answer: (D)
26. What happens due to over population?
(A) Decrease in income
(B) Reduction in land
(C) Lack of minerals
(D) All of these
Answer: (D)
27. Famous scientist Mendel is mainly known for his
(A) For the work of pea plants
(B) For the laws of genetics
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Answer: (C)
28. If father’s blood group is AB and mother’s blood group is B, then the blood group of their children is likely to be
(A) 00%
(B) 50%
(C) 25%
(D) None of these
Answer: (A)
29. A married couple already has three daughters and are now thinking of a fourth child. What will be the percentage probability of this future child being a son?
(A) 100%
(B) 50%
(C) 25%
(D) 00%
Answer: (B)
30. Crossing over occurs in which of the following stages?
(A) Pachytin
(B) Diplotine
(C) Diakinesis
(D) None of these
Answer: (A)
31. By hybridizing plants with pure red flowers and plants with pure white flowers, the first generation yielded plants with all pink flowers. This is a kind of
(A) Incomplete effectiveness
(B) full effectiveness
(C) hybrid
(D) None of these
Answer: (A)
32. Which of these is a universal (universally recognized) blood donor group?
(A) A
(B)B
(C) AB
(D) O
Answer: (D)
33. Which of the following is a sex linked trait?
(A) Color blindness
(B) Night blindness
(C) Complete blindness
(D) None of these
Answer: (A)
34. When a trait is driven by more than one opposite pair (allele), it is called
(A) multiple choice
(B) Polyembryony
(C) Incomplete effectiveness
(D) None of these
Answer: (A)
35. Who discovered coherence?
(A) Mendel
(B) Stanley and Miller
(C) Panne
(D) None of these
Answer: (C)
36. Mendel proposed:
(A) Inheritance of acquired qualities
(B) Laws of genetics
(C) Rules of association
(D) Law of energy
Answer: (B)
37. What kind of disease is hemophilia?
(A) Hereditary disease
(B) recessive trait
(C) X-chromosome linked disease
(D) All of these
Answer: (D)
38. Phenotypic ratio in dihybrid cross is:
(A) 3 : 1
(B) 1 : 2 : 1
(C) 9 : 7
(D) 9 : 3 : 3 : 10
Answer: (A)
39. Who propounded the theory of coupling and repulsion?
(a) (A) Morgan
(B) Bateson and Punnett
(C) Hugo de Breeze
(D) Mendel
Answer: (B)
40. A family having five daughters is going to have a sixth child. What are the chances of having a son?
(A) 0%
(B) 25%
(C) 50%
(D) 100%
Answer: (C)
41. The chromosomal component of Klinefelters syndrome is :
(A) 2A+ XX
(B) 2A+XXY
(C) 2A+Y
(D) 2A-XY
Answer: (B)
42. What are the human blood groups?
(A) A, B, C and O
(B) B, C, D and O
(C) A, B, AB and O
(D) All of the above
Answer: (C)
43. If Mendel had considered the eighth trait in pea, which of the following rules would fail?
(A) Law of Segregation
(B) Law of Purity of gametes
(C) Law of independence
(D) Law of dominance
Answer: (C)
44. Which of the following is an exception to the Mendelian Law of independent assortment?
(A) Crossing over
(B) Imperfect dominance
(C) Segregation
(D) Linkage
Answer: (D)
45. Who converted Mendel’s concept into Mendel’s law?
(A) Correns
(B) Shermark
(C) Hugo Debries
(D) Morgan
Answer: (A)
46. In the F2 descendant of an incomplete dominant:
(A) The ratio of phenotypes is 3 : 1
(B) The ratio of genotypes is 3:1
(C) Both
(D) Phenotypy ratio corresponds to genotypy ratio
Answer: (D)
47. By selling a tall plant, both tall and dwarf plants are obtained. What are the possibilities for the first child?
(A) long
(B) Dwarf
(C) Equal probabilities
(D) Inefficient data
Answer: (A)
48. Which of the following progeny crosses are phenotypically similar?
(A) Dd x Dd
(B) Dd x dd
(C) DD x Dd
(D)WxWw
Answer: (D)
49. How many phenotypes are produced by the test cross of Aa Bb cc?
(A) 16
(B) 12
(C) 8
(D) 4
Answer: (D)
50. Which of the following will produce 16 different gametes?
(A) Aa Bb cc Dd
(B) Aa Bb cc DD Ee Ff
(C) Aa Bb Cc dd EE FF
(D) Aa Bb Cc DD Ee Ff
Answer: (B)
51. Which of the following is a pure hybrid?
(A) Rrtt
(B) TTrr
(C) TtRr
(D) TT RR
Answer: (C)
52. Which of the following crosses represents the ratio of 3:1?
(A) AaBb x AaBb
(B) aa bb x AA Bb
(C) Aabb x Aabb
(D) AaBb x aa bb
Answer: (C)
53. There are 5 daughters in a family. If there is a sixth child then there is a possibility of a son:
(A) 1 in 2
(B) 1 in 5
(C) 1 in 3
(D) 1 in 6
Answer: (A)
54. How many types of gametes can be formed by a genotype Aa BBCc DD?
(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 16
(D) 64
Answer: (A)
55. The genotypic ratio of the progeny in a hybrid cross is:
(A) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(B) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
(C) 1 : 2 : 1
(D) 1 : 7 : 1
Answer: (B)
56. If the mother’s blood group is ‘0’ and the baby’s blood group is ‘0’, then what will be the father’s blood group?
(A)O
(B)A
(C) B
(D) AB
Answer: (A)
57. If the blood group of the child is ‘0’ and the blood group of the father is ‘B’, then the genotype of the father will be:
(A) PB
(B) BP
(C) AB
(D) PP
Answer: (B)
58. Antiserum used in testing blood group is found in:
(A) Antibody
(B) Antigen’
(C) Leukocytes
(D) None of these
Answer: (A)
59. Who was the first to study polygenic heredity in plants like tobacco?
(A) Debenport
(B) Nilsson-Ihle
(C) Colreuter
(D) Galton
Answer: (C)
60. A pea has recessive properties:
(A) wrinkled seeds
(B) long stem
(C) Round seeds
(D) Colorful seed coat
Answer: (A)
61. A complemented gene results in a dihybrid ratio of 9:3:3:1 in which of the following?
(A) 9 : 7
(B) 12 : 3 :1
(C) 15 : 1
(D) 13 : 3
Answer: (A)
62. Which of the following blood groups is found in humans and monkeys but not in monkeys?
(A) A and O
(B) A and B
(C) AB and 0
(D) B TT AB
Answer: (B)
63. Genetic complement that will occur in a Nullisomic organism
(A) 2n-1
(B) 2n -2
(C) 2n +1
(D) 2n +2
Answer: (B)
64. Chromosome pattern 2n-1 is called
(A) Monosomy
(B) Nalisaomi
(C) Trisomy
(D) Tetrasomy
Answer: (A)
65. ‘Bar body’ in mammals represents
(A) Complete heterochromatin present in female cells
(B) One of the two
(C) Complete heterochromatin present in male and female cells.
(D) Y-chromosome present in somatic cells of male.
Answer: (B)
66. XO type of chromosomal abnormality in humans is caused by
(A) Turner’s syndrome
(B) Down’s syndrome
(C) Darwin’s syndrome
(D) Klinefelters syndrome
Answer: (A)
67. Mutations can be induced:
(A) 1AA GRI
(B) By ethylene
(C) By gamma radiations
(D) by infrared radiations
Answer: (C)
68. In gynandromorph
(A) The genotype of some cells of the body is ‘XX’ and that of some cells is ‘YY’.
(B) The genotype of all cells is ‘XX’.
(C) The genotype of all cells is ‘XY’.
(D) The genotype of all cells is ‘XXY’
Answer: (C)
69. Which of the following did Mendel not propose?
(A) Sovereignty
(B) Imperfect sovereignty
(C) displacement
(D) independent drainage
Answer: (B)
70. Pleiotropic genes reside in:
(A) single genotype
(B) multiple genotypes
(C) multiple phenotypes
(D) single phenotype
Answer: (C)
71. If an organism has two identical alleles then it is said:
(A) Hybrid
(B) Homologous
(C) heterozygous
(D) supremacy
Answer: (B)
72. Which one of the following traits is an example of polygenic inheritance?
(A) Color of flower in Pirabilis jalapa
(B) Production of male bees
(C) Shape of pod in garden pea
(D) Skin color in humans
Answer: (D)
73. When one gene pair hides the effect of the other, it is called:
(A) Mutation
(B) Effectiveness
(C) epistasis
(D) None of these
Answer: (C)
74. Mendel’s single cross ratio is :
(A) 1 : 2
(B) 3 :1
(C) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(D) 9 : 7
Answer: (B)
75. Fi is the ratio between hybrid and recessive parent (Tt x tt):
(A) 1 : 1
(B) 2 : 1
(C) 3 : 1
(D) 4 : 1
Answer: (A)
76. Different forms of a gene are called:
(A) allele
(B) Parak Jeena
(C) Complementary gene
(D) Epistatic gene
Answer: (A)
77. The ratio of the phenotypes of a monohybrid cross in the F2 progeny is:
(A) 3 : 1
(B) 1 : 2 : 1
(C) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(D) 2 : 1
Answer: (B)
78. A pure tall pea plant was crossed with a pure dwarf plant. As a result, all the plants of F1 lineage were obtained tall. It has a reason :
(A) Dominance
(B) Disappearance of dwarfism trait in F2 descendants.
(C) Segregation of components
(D) Harmony/coordination
Answer: (C)
79. Monohybrid genotypic ratio of F2 progeny is 1 : 2 : 1:
(A) Segregation
(B) Independent assortment
(C) Dominance
(D) Incomplete dominance
Answer: (B)
80. Single hybridization is such hybridization in which:
(A) Only one plant should be used for the experiment
(B) A pair of contrasting characters are placed
(C) Hybrid is crossed with homozygous
(D) Two pairs of contrasting characters are taken
Answer: (A)
81. The component which represents a pair of different properties is called:
(A) Dominance to Recessive
(B) Alleles
(C) Homologous pairs
(D) Determinants
Answer: (A)
82. Which of the following 7-pairs does not represent contrasting characters?
(A) Height of plants
(B) Size of leaves
(C) Pod size
(D) Color of Pod
Answer: (C)
83. According to the law of independent assortment, what is true for a dihybrid cross?
(A) F2 descendants have 4 genotypes
(B) F2 has 16 phenotypes
(C) Only one individual who is homozygous recessive for both the characters.
(D) Prediction of different Phenotypes is not possible
Answer: (D)
84. Who is called the father of genetics?
(A) Mendel
(B) Morgan
(C) Lamarck
(D) Di Bhareez
Answer: (A)
85. The number of different types of gametes that are obtained from the genotype AaBbCc of a plant is :
(A) 2
(B) 8
(C) 4
(D) 16
Answer: (B)
86. How many types of gametes are possible from an organism with AABBCC genotype?
(A) one
(B) two
(C) four
(D) eight
Answer: (B)
87. The total haploid set of genes in a gamete is called:
(A) Genotype
(B) Phenotype
(C) Genome
(D) Linkage chorus
Answer: (D)
88. The total number of characters of pea studied by Mendel is :
(A) 5
(B) 7
(C) 6
(D) 4
Answer: (A)
89. The ratio of genotypes in a single hybrid will be :
(A) 3 : 1
(B) 1 : 1
(C) 1 : 2 : 1
(D) 2 : 1
Answer: (B)
90. Mendel’s Law of Segregation is based on which F2 ratio?
(A) 1 : 2
(B) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(C) 1 : 2 : 1
(D) 3 : 1
Answer: (C)
91. In which gene are not present in pairs?
(A) Zygote
(B) vegetative cell
(C) endosperm cell
(D) coupler
Answer: (A)
92. During which period does the segregation of genes occur?
(A) Metaphase
(B) Anaphase
(C) Prophase
(D) embryo formation
Answer: (C)
93. The cross between hybrid and parent is called:
(A) Monohybrid cross
(B) Back cross
(C) Test cross
(D) Reciprocal cross
Answer: (A)
94. The cross between the offspring and the recessive parent is called:
(A) Single hybrid
(B) Back cross
(C) Test cross
(D) Reciprocal cross
Answer: (C)
95. What is ABO blood group in humans an example of?
(A) Polygenic inheritance
(B) Multifactor inheritance
(C) Pleiotropic genes
(D) Multiple alleles
Answer: (D)
96. The genotype of O blood group father and O group child will be:
(A) IAIA
(B) IAi1
(C) IAIB
(D) II
Answer: (D)
97. Which blood group will the parents of a baby with ‘0’ blood group have?
(A) B and B
(B) A and B
(C) O and O
(D) AB and B
Answer: (C)
98. Recessive trait in a garden pea is :
(A) long stem
(B) Colorful flowers
(C) wrinkled seeds
(D) Puffed Pod
Answer: (C)
99. Which is Dihybrid Test cross?
(A) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
(B) 1 : 1
(C) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(D) 15 : 1
Answer: (B)
100. The reason for discontinuous variation is:
(A) Crossing over
(B) Mutation
(C) Segregation of chromosomes
(D) Independent assortment
Answer: (D)
SET-07
1.Two adjacent genes on a chromosome will be:
(A) Double crossing over
(B) No crossing over
(C) No crossing over with great difficulty
(D) Regular crossing over
Answer: (C)
2. Exchange of segment of non-homologous chromosome is called:
(A) Crossing over
(B) Inversion
(C) Duplication
(D)Translocation
Answer: (A)
3. A couple has two sons. The possibility of a third daughter is:
(A) 100%
(B) 50%
(C) 25%
(D) 12.5%
Answer: (B)
4. In what was complete linkage shown for the first time?
(A) Maize
(B) In female (human)
(C) In female Drosophila
(D) In male Drosophila
Answer: (C)
5. Genetic complement that will be present in Nullisomic organism:
(A) 2n -1
(B) 2n -2
(C) 2n + 1
(D) 2n + 2
Answer: (B)
6. The number of bar bodies present in Turner syndrome is:
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 8
Answer: (A)
7. If the number of haploid chromosomes in an organism is 10, its Tetrasomic number will be:
(A) 40
(B) 14
(C) 22
(D) 44
Answer: (A)
8. The number of sex complements in a male grasshopper is:
(A) XY
(B) XX
(C)
(D) YO
Answer: (A)
9. A person with A blood group has:
(A) Antigen A, Antibody B
(B) Antigen B, Antibody A
(C) Antigen A, Antibody B
(D) Antigen A, antibody absent
Answer: (C)
10. The mechanism of control of multiple phenotypes by one gene is called:
(A) Epistasis
(B) Pleiotropism
(C) Co-dominance
(D) Multiple allelism
Answer: (B)
11. Cri-du-chat syndrome is caused by which chromosomal aberration?
(A) Inversion
(B)Translocation
(C) Deletion
(D) Duplication
Answer: (C)
12. ABO blood group in humans is determined by three alleles. How many genotypes are possible from these?
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 8
Answer: (C)
13. If the blood group of both mother and child is O, then the blood group of the father will be
(A) A or B or O
(B) A or B
(C) Only O
(D) Only AB
Answer: (C)
14. Sex determination occurs in grasshoppers.
(A) XY type
(B) XO type
(C) ZW type
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)
15. In dental cell anemia, glutamic acid in the beta globin chain is replaced by the following amino acid.
(A) Glycine
(B) Valine
(C) Aspartic acid
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)
16. Hemophilia is a disease
(A) Autosomal recessive trait
(B) X chromosome recessive trait
(C) Monogamous chromosome ascendant dominant trait
(D) X chromosome ascendant dominant trait
Answer: (B)
17. Have Down Syndrome
(A) Trisomy of 21st chromosome
(B) diploidy of 21st chromosome
(C) diploidy of 21st chromosome
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)
18. Propounded the chromosome theory of inheritance.
(A) Gregor Mendel
(B) Sutton and Bobheri
(C) Thomas Morgan
(D) Watson and Crick
Answer: (B)
19. In dental cell anemia, the GAG codon of the beta globin gene is replaced by the following codon.
(A) GUG
(B) GCG
(C) GGG
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)
20. The three scientists who rediscovered Mendel’s results do not include
(A) Walter Sutton
(B) De Vries
(C) Correns
(D) Von Shermock
Answer: (D)
21. A pure tall pea plant was crossed with a pure dwarf plant. As a result, all the plants of F1 lineage were obtained tall. It has a reason :
(A) Dominance
(B) Disappearance of dwarfism trait in F1 descendants.
(C) Segregation of components
(D) Harmony/coordination
Answer: (A)
22. Monohybrid genotypic ratio of F2 progeny is 1:2:1:
(A) Segregation
(B) Independent assortment
(C) Dominance
(D) Incomplete dominance
Answer: (A)
23. In case of square blindness, the patient is unable to recognize.
(A) Red and yellow color
(B) Red and green color
(C) Blue and green color
(D) None of these
Answer: (B)
24. Human blood group AB
(A) Antibodies are present
(B) Antibodies are absent
(C) Antibody a is present
(D) Antibody b is present
Answer: (B)
25. Mendel had proposed:
(A) Rules of association
(B) 10% energy law
(C) Laws of heredity
(D) None of these
Answer: (C)
26. What are genes called if they are present in the same locus but their performance is different?
(A) Multiple alleles
(B) Polygenes
(C) Oncogenes
(D) co-efficient
Answer: (A)
27. How many types of gametes will be formed from AA Bb cc?
(A) two
(B) four
(C) six
(D) nine
Answer: (A)
28.Sickle cell exhibits infrared radiation:
(A) Epistasis
(B) Co-effectiveness
(C) Pleiotropy
(D) extremely effective
Answer: (C)
29.G.L. Mendel was:
(A) British priest
(B) Australian priest
(C) Austrian priest
(D) German scientist
Answer: (C)
30.The ultimate source of variations is:
(A) mitosis
(B) Meiosis
(C) fertilization
(D) mutation
Answer: (D)
31. If the monohybrid ratio between tall and dwarf pea plants is 3:1, then what will be their genotype?
(A) TT x Tt
(B) Tt x Tt
(C) TT x tt
(D) Tt x tt
Answer: (B)
32.Blood group contains:
(A) Antigen A, Antibody B
(B) Antigen B, Antibody A
(C) Antigen A, Antibody B
(D) Antigen A, antibody absent
Answer: (C)
33.Mendel’s law of segregation is important:
(A) Monohybrid
(B) Hybrid cross
(C) Hybrid but monohybrid cross
(D) Add homologous between chromosomes
Answer: (D)
34. Which is the common test of genotype of hybrid?
(A) Sexual behavior of F1 progeny
(B) Cross of F1 progeny with recessive parent.
(C) Cross of an F2 parent with a male gamete.
(D) Cross of an F2 parent with a female gamete.
Answer: (B)
35. Segregation of genes occurs:
(A) In embryo formation
(B) in anaphase first
(C) in anaphase II
(D) in metaphase II
Answer: (B)
36. The offspring produced from two pure individuals who differ in a set of characteristics are called:
(A) Monohybrid
(B) Mutant
(C) Polyploid
(D) different
Answer: (A)
37. Genotype is determined by ‘test cross’. This is a cross between:
(A) Between F1 hybrid and dominant father
(B) Between F1 hybrid and recessive father
(C) Between two F1 hybrids
(D) Between two F2 hybrids
Answer: (B)
38. The cross between a hybrid and either of the two parents is called:
(A) Test cross
(B) Reciprocal cross
(C) Single cross
(D) Back cross
Answer: (D)
39. Which method did Mendel provide to see the effect of heredity on sex?
(A) Test cross
(B) Out cross
(C) Reciprocal cross
(D) Sib cross
Answer: (C)
40. The cross between F1 hybrid and dominant parent is called:
(A) Test cross
(B) Out cross
(C) Back cross
(D) reverse cross
Answer: (B)
41. Which of the following is an impressive quality?
(A) chroma
(B) Night blindness
(C) Rht
(D) Alvinism
Answer: (C)
42. Who was Mendel’s Independent Assortment?
(A) Single hybrid cross
(B) Two-way hybrid cross
(C) Imperfect dominance
(D) Back cross
Answer: (B)
43. Mendel selected
(A) Gram
(B) Pinus
(C) Tomato
(D) Garden peas
Answer: (D)
44. The main characteristic is the presence of 47 chromosomes in a woman due to three copies of the 21st chromosome.
(A) Down syndrome
(B) Trinity
(C) Turner syndrome
(D) Of super-femaleness
Answer: (A)
45. Genes for male-sterility are present in cytoplasm in plants.
(A) In the mitochondrial genome
(B) in cytosol
(C) In chlorophyll genome
(D) in the nuclear genome
Answer: (A)
46. G-6-P dehydrogenase deficiency is related to whose haemolysis?
(A) lymphocytes
(B) RBCs
(C) Platelets
(D) Leukocytes
Answer: (B)
47. In point mutation adenine is replaced by guanine.
(A) In inversion
(B) In frame shift mutation
(C) In transversion
(D) in transition
Answer: (C)
48. Complete linkage is visible
(A) In Mecca
(B) in woman
(C) In female Drosophila
(D) In male Drosophila
Answer: (D)
49. The law of purity of gametes given by Mendel is based on
(A) trial hybridization
(B) cross hybridization
(C) A hybrid hybridization
(D) two-hybrid hybridization
Answer: (C)
50. Dental cell anemia occurs
(A) Somatic related dominant symptoms
(B) Due to substitution by glutamic acid in the B-globin chain of hemoglobin.
(C) Due to change in one base pair of DNA
(D) Characterized by long, sickle-shaped cells with nuclei
Answer: (B)
51. Occurs in point mutation.
(A) Sanivation
(B) Change in one base pair
(C) doubling not
(D) extinction
Answer: (B)
52. What is the result of dominant trait pattern?
(A) By experimental hybridization
(B) By dihybrid hybridization
(C) By genealogical analysis
(D) By prototype version
Answer: (A)
53. What is the phenotypic pattern of an organism the result of?
(A) Mutations and linkages
(B) Cytoplasmic effect sexual dimorphism
(C) Environmental change and sexual dimorphism
(D) Interaction of genotype and environment
Answer: (D)
54. What causes ‘Cry-du-Chat’ syndrome in humans?
(A) Fertilization of XX egg by a normal Y-bearing sperm
(B) Loss of half of the short arm of chromosome 5
(C) Loss of half of the long arm of chromosome 5
(D) Trisomy (monosomy) of the 21st chromosome
Answer: (B)
55. Inheritance of skin color in humans is an example of?
(A) Chromosomal aberration, chromosome aberration
(B) Point mutation
(C) polygenic inheritance
(D) co-effectiveness
Answer: (C)
56. Short neck, small ears and broad chest characteristics are related to
(A) From a woman with XXX chromosome
(B) From a woman with XO chromosome
(C) From a woman with XX chromosome
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)
57. Abnormal sterile male, has less body hair, less developed genital characteristics
(A) Male with XXX chromosome
(B) Male with XY chromosome
(C) Male with XYY chromosome
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)
58. Shows symptoms at XYY.
(A) Underdeveloped genitals, castration, underdeveloped chest
(B) Overdeveloped genitals, abnormal in length, mental disorders
(C) Normal height and normal development of genitalia.
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)
59. By hybridization of red (RR) and white (RR) flowers of Mirabilus plant, pink colored (Rr) hybrid flower is produced. Now what will be the possible phenotype ratio, if pink flower is crossed with white flower?
(A) Red : Pink : White (1 : 2 : 1)
(B) Pink : White (1 : 1)
(C) Red : Pink (1 : 1)
(D) Red : White (3 : 1)
Answer: (B)
60. Another name for ‘Christmas disease’ is
(A) Down syndrome
(B) sleeping sickness
(C) Haemophilia B
(D) Hepatitis B
Answer: (C)
61. A normal woman whose father is color blind gets married to a normal man. he will have sons
(A) 75% color blind
(B) 50% color blind
(C) All normal
(D) All color blind
Answer: (B)
62. Determining the heterozygous or homozygous characteristics of an organism by mating it with a bi-recessive organism is called.
(A) Inverse hybridization
(B) Hybridization for testing
(C) Dwisankara
(D) Pratip Sankara
Answer: (B)
63. A self-fertilized trihybrid plant will produce
(A) 4 different gametes and 16 different zygotes
(B) 8 different gametes and 16 different zygotes
(C) 8 different gametes and 32 different zygotes
(D) 8 different gametes and 64 different zygotes
Answer: (D)
64. Gynecomastia is a symptom
(A) Klinefelters syndrome
(B) Turner’s syndrome
(C) SARS
(D) Down’s syndrome
Answer: (A)
65. What are the sex chromosome components in Kleinfelters syndrome?
(A) 22A + XXY
(B) 22A + XO
(C) 22A + XY
(D) 22A + XX
Answer: (A)
66. Hemophilia is more commonly found in men than women because
(A) This disease is caused by X-linked dominant mutation
(B) A large number of girls die in childhood.
(C) This disease is caused by X-linked recessive mutation.
(D) This disease is caused by Y-linked recessive mutation.
Answer: (C)
67. Amino acid is a component of sickle cell anemia.
(A) Glutamic acid by valine in a chain
(B) valine by glutamic acid in the a series
(C) Glutamic acid by valine in b series
(D) valine by glutamic acid in b series
Answer: (C)
68. At what stage does gene exchange take place?
(A) Zygotene
(B) Pachytene
(C) Diplotene
(D) Liptotin
Answer: (B)
69. What will be the number of Y-coordination group for the cell in which 2n = 14?
(A) 5
(B) 10
(C) 7
(D) 14
Answer: (C)
70. A point mutation is:
(A) Thalassemia
(B) Sickle cell anemia
(C) Down syndrome
(D) Night blindness
Answer: (B)
71. Mendel’s second law is
(A) Law of separation
(B) Law of effectiveness
(C) Law of multiple inheritance
(D) Law of independent discharge
Answer: (D)
72. Mendel’s laws were recognized
(A) Correns
(B) Shermac
(C) De Vries
(D) All of them
Answer: (D)
73. When an F1 plant heterozygous for tallness was self-pollinated, both tall and dwarf plants were produced in the F2 generation. This proves the theory
(A) Effectiveness
(B) Blended inheritance
(C) Law of separation
(D) independent
Answer ⇒ (B)
74. What is it called when a hybrid plant of F1 generation is crossed with a time-tolerant recessive parent?
(A) Back cross
(B) Test cross
(C) Monohybrid cross
(D) Dihybrid cross
Answer: (B)
75. When Mendel crossed a pure purple flowering pea plant with a white flowering plant, what kind of plants were obtained in the first generation?
(A) All purple flowering plants
(B) All white flowering plants,
(C) Plants with 50% purple and 50% white flowers.
(D) Plants with 75% purple and 25% white flowers.
Answer: (A)
76. Analysis of characteristics of several generations of a family is called?
(A) Genealogical analysis
(B) Mendel analysis
(C) Punnett analysis
(D) None of these
Answer: (A)
77. The smallest section of genetic material affected by mutation is:
(A) Recon
(B) Systron
(C) Muton
(D) Axon
Answer: (C)
78. The genes located on Y-chromosome are
(A) Mutant genes
(B) Autosomal genes
(C) Holendric genes
(D) sex linked gene
Answer: (D)
79. is a potent mutagen
(A) cold
(B) heat
(C) water
(D) x-rays
Answer: (C)
80. There is an exception to Mendel’s law.
(A) Effectiveness
(B) purity of the pair
(C) Linkage
(D) independent drainage
Answer: (C)
81. What is the name of the scientist who gave the laws of inheritance?
(A) Gregor Mendel
(B) Newton
(C) Punnett
(D) None of these
Answer: (A)
82. Punnett square developed
(A) Mendel
(B) From Watson and Sutton
(C) Reginald
(D) Boberi
Answer: (C)
83. What is a pair of opposite traits called in Mendel’s experiments?
(A) gene
(B) Phenotype
(C) Genotype
(D) allele
Answer: (D)
84. A gene that affects many traits is called
(A) Additive
(B) Pleiotropic
(C) Epistephink
(D) Supplementary
Answer: (B)
85. is the source of variations.
(A) mitosis
(B) Meiosis
(C) Insertion
(D) mutation
Answer: (D)
86. At what stage does crossing over occur?
(A) Leptotene
(B) Cytokinesis
(C) Pachytene
(D) Diakinesis
Answer: (C)
87. If mother’s blood group is A and father’s blood group is AB, then what will be the baby’s blood group?
(A) AB
(B) A or B
(C) A, B, AB
(D) O only
Answer: (C)
88. The cross between parents with AaBB and aaBB genotype is called.
(A) All AaBB
(B) 1AaBB : 3aaBB
(C) 1 AaBB : 1aaBB
(D) 3AaBB : laaBB
Answer: (C)
89. ABO blood group is determined by:
(A) By 3 recessive alleles
(B) By 3 codominant alleles
(C) By 2 dominant and 1 recessive alleles
(D) By 2 recessive and 1 dominant alleles
Answer: (C)
90. AB blood group contains 2 genes:
(A) Co dominant
(B) Co-recessive
(C) Incomplete dominant
(D) dominant-recessive
Answer: (A)
91. What controls the color of human skin?
(A) single allele
(B) Dictal allele
(C) At least three separate genes
(D) four alleles
Answer: (C)
92. Which of the following is a sexually transmitted disease?
(A) Night blindness
(B) Glaucoma
(C) Hemophilia
(D) all
Answer: (C)
93. Who discovered linkage?
(A) Mendel
(B) Morgan
(C) Punnett
(D) Muller
Answer: (B)
94. Mendel was successful in his experiments because
(A) He chose the pea plant.
(B) Independent characteristics were studied
(C) Excessive traits were chosen
(D) Pea plant became bisexual
Answer: (A)
95. In the absence of melanin pigment the condition arises:
(A) Color blindness
(B) Pigment deficiency
(C) Phenylketonuria
(D) Alkaptonuria Man
Answer: (B)
96. Who was the scientist who reiterated Mendel’s theory?
(A) Darwin, Wallace and Hugo de Vries
(B) Darwin, Correns and Shermak
(C) Hugo de Vries, Correns and Shermak
(D) Morgan, Hugo de Vries and Corence
Answer: (C)
97. When red-skinned cattle were crossed with white-skinned cattle, the color of the cattle became brindle or roan in the FI generation. What does it represent?
(A) Co-influence
(B) full effectiveness
(C) Incomplete effectiveness
(D) Linkage
Answer: (A)
98. The emergence of stamens from flower buds in the reproduction of new species is called
(A) Bagging
(B) Emasculation
(C) Tagging
(D) Anthesis
Answer: (B)
99. Sickle-shaped anemia is:
(A) Autosomal genetic disease
(B) Allosomic genetic disease
(C) Epistatic effect
(D) Nutritional distortion
Answer: (A)
100. Remember, if father’s blood group is 0 and mother’s is AB, then which blood group can the child have?
(A) O
(B) AB
(C) O or AB
(D) A or B
Answer: (D)
SET-08
1.The gene for abundance of hair on the ears is found in:
(A) On X-chromosome
(B) On Y-chromosome
(C) On sex determining chromosome
(D) on chromosomes
Answer: (B)
2.When did Mendel publish his work on inheritance of traits?
(A) 1870
(B) 1900
(C) 1865
(D) 1845
Answer: (C)
3.What is female heterozygosity?
(A) Production of two different types of gametes by the female
(B) Production of four types of different gametes by the male
(C) (A) and (B) can be
(D) None of these
Answer: (A)
4.If a normal man marries a woman who is a haemophilia carrier, then what will be the condition of the male children born from both of them?
(A) All suffering from hemophilia
(B) 50% normal 50% diseased
(C) All normal
(D) Carriers of all diseases
Answer: (B)
5.When pyrimidine is substituted in place of purine by any mutation, it is called:
(A) transition
(B) Transversion
(C) Translocation
(D) Inversion
Answer: (B)
6.The number of chromosomes in humans is
(A) 44+XX
(B) 44+XY
(C) 46 +XY
(D) 46 +XX
Answer: (B)
7.One gene pair suppresses the effect of the other gene pair. This incident is called
(A) Epistasis
(B) Effectiveness
(C) Mutation
(D) None of these
Answer: (A)
8.Which of the following diseases is caused by hemoglobin defect?
(A) Down’s syndrome
(B) Phenyl ketonuria
(C) Klinefelter syndrome
(D) Sickle cell anemia
Answer: (D)
9.How many traits did Mendel study?
(A) five
(B) four
(C) seven
(D) three
Answer: (C)
10. Mendel propounded
(A) Law of association
(B) Law of heredity
(C) Law of thermodynamics
(D) None of these
Answer: (B)
11.What else is the principle of separation called?
(A) Law of effectiveness
(B) Law of independent discharge
(C) Law of purity of gametes
(D) None of these
Answer: (C)
12.The phenotypic ratio in a dihybrid cross is
(A) 3 : 1
(B) 1 : 2 : 1
(C) 9:7
(D) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
Answer: (D)
13. Blood group 0 in humans
(A) Antigens are absent
(B) Antibodies are absent
(C) Antigens are present
(D) Antibody A is present
Answer: (A)
14. Due to trisomy (2n + 1), children are mentally retarded, what is it called:
(A) Philadelphia
(B) Down’s syndrome
(C) Albinism
(D) None of these
Answer: (B)
15.What is the phenotypic ratio of dihybrid cross?
(A) 1 : 2 : 1
(B) 3 : 1
(C) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(D) None of these
Answer: (C)
16.Which of the following blood groups is a universal donor?
(A) B
(B)A
(C) AB
(D) O
Answer: (D)
17.What is the phenotypic ratio of a hybridization cross?
(A) 1 : 2 : 1
(B) 3 : 1
(C) 9:3 : 3 : 1
(D) None of these
Answer: (B)
18.Who developed the theory of inheritance of acquired qualities?
(A) Darwin
(B) Lamarck
(C) Day Worries
(D) Hackle
Answer: (B)
19.Which of the following is the human chromosome with the most and least number of genes?
(A) Chromosome 21 and Y
(B) Chromosome 1 and
(C) Chromosome 1 and Y
(D) Chromosome
Answer: (C)
20.Which genetic disease is caused by trisomy of the 21st chromosome?
(A) Kline Felter syndrome
(B) Turner syndrome
(C) Dental cell anemia
(D) Down syndrome
Answer: (D)
21.If a woman with normal vision, whose father is color blind, marries a man with normal vision, then what will be the possibility of color blindness in her future son and daughter?
(A) 25% color blind sons and all symptomatic daughters with normal vision.
(B) 50% color blind sons and 50% daughters with normal vision.
(C) 50% color blind sons and 50% color blind daughters
(D) All sons have normal vision and daughter is color blind.
Answer: (B)
22.The distance between the hydrogen bonds of two nitrogenous bases (eg A+ T, G=-c) is:
(A) same
(B) unequal
(C) Variable
(D) None of these
Answer: (A)
23.In any DNA:
(A) Thymine pairs with guanine
(B) Adenine pairs with thymine
(C) Adenosine pairs with thymidine
(D) Guanine pairs with cytosine
Answer: (B)
24.The number of nucleotides in one spiral of a B-DNA is:
(A) 5
(B) 10
(C) 20
(D) 25
Answer: (B)
25.If there are 10 rings in DNA, then the length of DNA will be:
(A) 34 A
(B) 340 A
(C) 640 A
(D) 64 A
Answer: (B)
26.The basic unit of a nucleic acid molecule is called:
(A) Nucleoside
(B) Nucleotide
(C) Nitrogenous alkali
(D) Pentose sugar
Answer: (B)
27.Why does RNA differ from DNA?
(A) Sugar and purine
(B) Sugar and pyrimidine
(C) Purine and phosphate
(D) Sugar and phosphate
Answer: (B)
28.To which carbon of the pentose sugar of a nucleoside is the nitrogenous base attached?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 5
Answer: (A)
29.DNA repairing takes place
(A) By DNA polymerase I
(B) by DNA polymerase II
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) by ligase
Answer: (B)
30.Ribtoide is made from
(A) Ribose + phosphate + uracil
(B) Doxyribose + uracil + phosphate
(C) Thymine + ribose + phosphate
(D) Deoxyribose + phosphate + adenine
Answer: (A)
31.The enzyme involved in transcription is
(A) DNA polymerase I
(B) DNA polymerase II
(C) RNA polymerase
(D) DNA polymerase III
Answer: (D)
32.Which of the following RNA acts as an adapter molecule?
(A) messenger RNA
(B) Transfer RNA
(C) Ribosomal RNA
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)
33.The following scientists gave clear information about lac operator in E. coli
(A) Jacob and Monod
(B) Watson and Crick
(C) Beadle and Tatum
(D) None of these
Answer: (A)
34.Beta galactosalyl is synthesized by the following gene in lac operator:
(A) Gene A
(B) Gene Y
(C) Gene Z
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)
35.The following molecule became the first genetic material
(A) DNA
(B) RNA
(C) Protein
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)
36.DNA fragments are joined by:
(A) Ligase
(B) Polymerase
(C) Helicase
(D) Zaire
Answer: (A)
37.DNA is different from RNA:
(A) Through nitrogenous bases and sugars
(B) By nitrogenous alkali and phosphate groups
(C) By the number of C atoms in sugars
(D) By sugar and phosphate groups
Answer: (A)
38.Who discovered DNA polymerase?
(A) Okazaki
(B) Karenberg
(C) Meselson and Stahl
(D) Watson and Crick
Answer: (B)
39.Which RNA is short lived?
(A) mRNA
(B) tRNA
(C) rRNA
(D) SnRNA
Answer: (A)
40.In the double helix model of DNA, at what distance is each helix from the other?
(A) 34 nm
(B) 3.4 nm
(C) 2 nm
(D) 0.34 nm
Answer: (D)
41.How many codes are there in the genetic code?
(A) 4
(B) 165
(C) 32
(D) 64
Answer: (D)
42.Operon model was proposed
(A) Watson and Crick
(B) Nirenberg
(C) Jacob and Monad
(D) None of these
Answer: (C)
43.What is a gene made of ?
(A) Lipoprotein
(B) Nucleosides
(C) Polynucleotides
(D) Histones
Answer: (C)
44.The genetic material in a retrovirus is:
(A) RNA
(B) DNA
(C) hnRNA
(D) brother often
Answer: (A)
45.What is the triple UUU code for?
(A) Leucine
(B) Methionine
(C) Phenyl alanine
(D) Glycine
Answer: (C)
46.In Jan mutation, adenine is replaced by guanine, it is :
(A) frame-shift mutation
(B) Transcription
(C) transition
(D) Transversion
Answer: (C)
47.Why did Khurana receive the Nobel Prize?
(A) Discovery of DNA
(B) Discovery of RNA
(C) For chemical synthesis of genes
(D) Discovery of DNA polymerase
Answer: (C)
48.Who propounded the theory of chemical origin of life?
(A) Miller and Fox
(B) Oparin and Haldane
(C) Miller and Watson
(D) Watson and Melvin
Answer: (B)
49.Which gene of operon makes repression protein?
(A) Operator
(B) Promoter
(C) Regulator
(D) structural
Answer: (C)
50.Present in nucleosome:
(A) histone molecule
(B) Nucleotide
(C) Nucleoplasmin
(D) Nuclear Four Complex
Answer: (A)
51.Continuously functioning gene is:
(A) Gene battery
(B) Luxury Jeans
(C) Mild genes
(D) House keeping jeans
Answer: (D)
52.The ultimate source of variation is:
(A) Natural selection
(B) Sexual reproduction
(C) Mutation
(D) Hormonal mechanism
Answer: (C)
53.By what can an infertile plant hybrid be made fertile?
(A) By use of colchicine
(B) Poly Plopdi
(C) By Ganosan device
(D) All of these
Answer: (D)
54.Interbreeding between close relatives occurs through:
(A) Decrease in diversity
(B) Increase in diversity
(C) Decline in dominance
(D) None of these
Answer: (A)
55.Somaclonal variations are:
(A) Variations produced by tissue culture
(B) Variations produced by sexual reproduction
(C) Variations caused by mutagens
(D) Variations caused by gamma rays
Answer: (A)
56.Which of the following DNA molecules contains purine?
(A) A and C
(B) C and T
(C) A and G
(D) None of these
Answer: (C)
57.There is a rule of proportion for a species.
(A) T+C/G+A
(B) A+C/T+G
(C) G+C/A+T
(D) A+C/C+T
Answer: (B)
58.Which of the following is the initial codon?
(A) AUG
(B) UAG
(C) UAA
(D) UUA
Answer: (A)
59.Which of the following is the termination codon?
(A) AUG
(B) CCC
(C) UAG
(D) GGG
Answer: (C)
60.A large cluster of ribosomes is called:
(A) Megasome
(B) Micro Monday
(C) Polyribosome
(D) Oligosome
Answer: (C)
61.What is the distance between the base chains in the ring of a double-stranded DNA?
(A) 0.34 nm
(B) 34 nm
(C) 5A
(D) 10
Answer: (A)
62.F-bond occurs between which elements in the DNA chain?
(A) Sugar and alkali
(B) Phosphate and alkali
(C) Complementary base
(D) Phosphate and sugar
Answer: (C)
63.When is the Okazaki section formed?
(A) Transcription
(B) Translation
(C) Replication
(D) Transduction
Answer: (C)
64.There is one turn of the helix in the form of DNA.
(A) 20 A
(B) 2 nm
(C) 20 nm
(D) 34 nm
Answer: (D)
65.Lac is not a component of the operon.
(A) primer gene
(B) Promoter gene
(C) Structural genes
(D) regulatory genes
Answer: (A)
66.Okazaki section is
(A) RNA primers
(B) Small fragments of RNA on the leading strand
(C) Small fragments of DNA on ligation strand
(D) None of these
Answer: (C)
67.Can not be synthesized directly from DNA
(A) mRNA
(B) t-RNA
(C) r-RNA
(D) of protein
Answer: (D)
68.What type of system does the tryptophan operon represent?
(A) inductive
(B) oppressive
(C) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’
(D) None of these
Answer: (B)
69.Who defined genes as cistron, ricon and muton?
(A) Jacob and Monod
(B) Britton and Davidson
(C) Watson and Crick
(D) Benzer
Answer: (D)
70.What function does lactose perform in the lac operon?
(A) Controller
(B) Motivator
(C) Blocker
(D) Every type of these
Answer: (B)
71.What are regulatory genes called?
(A) inhibitory gene
(B) Repressor
(C) operator gene
(D) Promoter gene
Answer: (A)
72.What is the noncoding sequence found in eukaryotes called?
(A) Promoter
(B) Exon
(C) Intron
(D) fragmented living
Answer: (C)
73.Formed in translation or transfer
(A) RNA to protein
(B) DNA Y DNA
(C) RNA on DNA
(D) RNA Y DNA
Answer: (A)
74.Which is true regarding Plasmid?
(A) Found in viruses
(B) There are many uses in gene transfer.
(C) carry genes for biological activities
(D) Are parts of nuclear chromosomes
Answer: (B)
75.Nucleoside.
(A) Nitrogenous base + sugar
(B) Nitrogenous + sugar + phosphate
(C) Sugar + phosphate
(D) Nitrogenous + phosphate
Answer: (A)
76.Cytosine accounts for 18% in DNA molecule. The percentage of adenine is
(A) 64
(B) 36
(C) 82
(D) 32
Answer: (D)
77.DNA segments join in the correct sequence
(A) By DNA ligase
(B) By RNA polymerase
(C) by helicase
(D) DNA TÍCIATO GRI
Answer: (B)
78.Which of the following is DNA finger printing?
(A) DNA typing
(B) DNA profiling
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Answer: (C)
79.Under what condition does crossing over occur?
(A) Zygotene
(B) Leptotene
(C) Pachytene
(D) Metaphase
Answer: (C)
80.Nucleic acid is a polymer
(A) Nucleotide water
(B) Nucleoside
(C) Amino acid
(D) Nucleoprotein
Answer: (A)
81.Which bond exists between the nitrogenous bases of nucleic acid?
(A) peptide bond
(B) Easter bond
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Hydrogen bonding
Answer: (D)
82.How many pairs of nitrogenous bases are there in one complete turn of B-DNA?
(A) 5
(B) 10
(C) 15
(D) 20
Answer: (B)
83.In micro breeding:
(A) Asexual reproduction
(B) Plants with similar genetic properties
(C) Sexual reproduction
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Answer: (D)
84.What does the operon model represent?
(A) Synthesis of genes
(B) expression of genes
(C) Regulation of genes
(D) Function of genes
Answer: (C)
85.Which of these nitrogenous bases is not present in DNA?
(A) Thymine
(B) Uracil
(C) Guanine
(D) Cytosine
Answer: (B)
86.DNA is the genetic material of which of the following?
(A) TMV
(B) Bacteriophage
(C) Both of these
(D) Nobody’s
Answer: (B)
87.What is the process of making mRNA from DNA called?
(A) Transcription
(B) Replication
(C) Translation
(D) None of these
Answer: (A)
88.Genes present at one place and having different expression are called
(A) polyallelic
(B) Multigene
(C) Oncogene
(D) synergy gene
Answer: (B)
89.The emergence of antibiotic resistant bacteria is an example of which of the following?
(A) Adaptive radiation
(B) Transduction
(C) Pre-existing diversity in a community
(D) divergent evolution
Answer: (A)
90.Which of the following is involved in the transcription of t-RNA, 5S-RNA and snRNA in eukaryotes?
(A) RNA polymerase I
(B) RNA polymerase II
(C) RNA polymerase III
(D) All of these
Answer: (C)
91.Per binding endonuclease recognizes a specific branch sequence of DNA.
(A) Palindromic nucleotide molecules
(B) B. N. T.R.
(C) Mini satellite
(D) All of these
Answer: (A)
92.The expression of any gene is edited by which of the following?
(A) Small interfering RNA
(B) Antisense RNA
(C) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’
(D) None of these
Answer: (C)
93.Archeopteryx is a connecting link between which two different types of animals?
(A) Water and land
(B) Land and mountains
(C) Land and air environment
(D) None of these
Answer: (C)
94.Lamarckism is related to
(A) Use and disuse
(B) Inheritance of acquired traits
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Answer: (C)
95.What is Echidna:
(A) Absorbent organisms
(B) connecting link
(C) missing link
(D) None of these
Answer: (B)
96.The principle of inheritance of acquired qualities was given by:
(A) Hikel
(B) Darwin
(C) DeVries
(D) Lamarck
Answer: (D)
97.Who wrote the book Species Planrem?
(A) Johnray
(B) Carolus Linnaeus
(C) Theocrastus
(D) None of these
Answer: (B)
98.The first human whose fossils were found in Europe and Asia apart from Africa
(A) Homo habilis
(B) Homo erectus
(C) Homo Neanderthal
(D) Homo Sapiens
Answer: (B)
99.Who produced coacervates experimentally?
(A) Apirin and Sidney Fox
(B) Fisher and Huxley
(C) Jacob and Monad
(D) Ure and Miller
Answer: (A)
100.Accidental deletion of an allele from a small population is:
(A) Adaptation
(B) Genetic drift
(C) caste construction car
(D) selective pressure
Answer: (B)
SET-09
1.Replication is related to which of the following –
(A) DNA
(B) RNA
(C) from both
(D) None of these
Answer: (A)
2.The presence of cytosine in place of adenine is called
(A) Transcription
(B) transition
(C) Transversion
(D) None of these, none
Answer: (C)
3.Okazaki piece is related.
(A) Transversion
(B) Ready for translation
(C) Automation both
(D) Replication
Answer: (D)
4.Substitution of purine in place of perimidine or pyrimidine in place of furine is called
(A) transition
(B) Transfer
(C) Translocation
(D) Transformation
Answer: (B)
5.Which of the following is the terminating codon?
(A) UAA
(B) UCC
(C) AUG
(D) GUG
Answer: (A)
6.Those parts of DNA which do not participate in coding for protein synthesis are called
(A) Intranasal
(B) Extraneous
(C) Transposons
(D) None of these
Answer: (A)
7.Lac operon and tryptophan operon correctly show the function of the gene.
(A) In bacteria
(B) In fungus
(C) In eukaryotes
(D) None of these
Answer: (A)
8.The noncoding sequence of DNA is called:
(A) fragmented gene
(B) Intron
(C) Axon
(D) None of these
Answer: (B)
9.Transcription is :
(A) Formation of DNA
(B) Formation of messenger RNA
(C) Formation of protein
(D) Formation of amino acids
Answer: (B)
10.What is the number of blocking codes:
(A) one
(B) two
(C) three
(D) four
Answer: (C)
11.Mutation is generally done :
(A) Ultra-violet rays
(B) Gamma ray
(C) Alpha ray
(D) Beta ray
Answer: (B)
12.What is the process of formation of messenger RNA from DNA called?
(A) replication/duplication
(B) Transpiration
(C) Transcription
(D) conversion
Answer: (B)
13.How many codes are there in the genetic code?
(A) 8
(B) 16
(C) 32
(D) 64
Answer: (D)
14.Who proposed the operon model?
(A) Nirenberg
(B) Jacob and Monod
(C) Khurana
(D) Methaai
Answer: (B)
15.Inheritance of skin color in humans is an example of:
(A) inheritance of a gene
(B) inheritance of two genes
(C) Inheritance of more genes
(D) All of these
Answer: (C)
16.The process of protein synthesis takes place:
(A) Mitochondria
(B) Lavak
(C) Ribosome
(D) centrosome
Answer: (C)
17.Who developed DNA fingerprinting?
(A) Fleming
(B) Alec Jaffrey
(C) Smith
(D) Watson
Answer: (B)
18.Jumping gene is called:
(A) fragmented gene
(B) Transposon
(C) Silent gene
(D) All of these
Answer: (B)
19.Which of the following is the chain initiation codon?
(A) AUG
(B) CCC
(C) UAG
(D) UAA
Answer: (A)
20.When in any mutation, pyramidine is substituted in place of purine, then it is called:
(A) transition
(B) Transversion
(C) Translocation
(D) Inversion
Answer: (B)
21.What is called junk DNA?
(A) coding sequence
(B) Noncoding sequence
(C) Promoter gene
(D) Histone protein
Answer: (B)
22.When are Okazaki fragments formed?
(A) Transcription
(B) transfer
(C) Doubling
(D) transition
Answer: (C)
23.What is required to activate amino acids for protein synthesis:
(A) AMP
(B) ADP
(C) GTP
(D) ATP
Answer: (D)
24.The process of transfer is related to:
(A) DNA synthesis
(B) RNA synthesis
(C) Ribosome synthesis
(D) Protein synthesis
Answer: (D)
25.In which situation is the phenotypic and isogenic ratio equal in F2 generation?
(A) Dihybrid cross
(B) Complementary genes
(C) Incomplete effectiveness
(D) inhibitory gene
Answer: (C)
26.Enzymes are necessary for transcription:
(A) DNA polymerase
(B) RNA polymerase
(C) Endonuclease
(D) All of these
Answer: (B)
27.In the splicing gene, the coding sequence is called:
(A) Intron
(B) Exon
(C) Systron
(D) Operon
Answer: (B)
28.How many base pairs are there in one complete turn of B-DNA?
(A) 10
(B) 12
(C) 20
(D) 15
Answer: (A)
29.A large group of ribosomes is called:
(A) Megasome
(B) Microsome
(C) Oligosome
(D) Polyribosome
Answer: (D)
30.Which of the following is called genetic material?
(A) DNA
(B) Protein
(C) Fat
(D) All of these
Answer: (A)
31.Lack operator regulation given:
(A) Watson and Crick
(B) Beadle and Tatum
(C) Miller and Urey
(D) Jacob and Monod
Answer: (D)
32.Phosphorus is a component of which of the following?
(A) Nucleic acid
(B) Biological membranes
(C) Cellular energy transfer system
(D) All of these
Answer: (D)
33.Which of the following is a nucleotide?
(A) Uridylic acid
(B) Thiamine
(C) Cytosine
(D) Glutamic acid
Answer: (A)
34.Which nitrogenous base is absent in DNA?
(A) A
(B) C
(C) T
(D) U
Answer: (D)
35.The ratio of DNA and RNA in some prokaryotes is 1: 2. What is this ratio in eukaryotes?
(A) 1 : 1
(B) 2 : 1
(C) 1 : 2
(D) not stable
Answer: (A)
36.Which of the following is not true of RNA?
(A) Adenine
(B) Guanine
(C) Thiamine
(D) Cytonin
Answer: (C)
37.Prokaryotic genetic system lies in :
(A) DNA + histones
(B) Without DNA + histone
(C) DNA + nonhistone
(D) Both DNA and histones are absent
Answer: (B)
38.Cytosine is always attached to what in DNA molecule?
(A) Thiamine
(B) Uracil
(C) Guanine
(D) Cytosine
Answer: (C)
39.The method of testing DNA is:
(A) Iodine test
(B) Fluelgen reaction
(C) Rollish test
(D) Millon’s reagent
Answer: (B)
40.Which nitrogenous base is in DNA?
(A) ATUC
(B) AUGC
(C) UTGC
(D) ATGC
Answer: (D)
41.Pyrimidine contained in DNA is:
(A) Thymine and cytosine
(B) Cytosine and guanine
(C) Adenine and uracil
(D) Adenine and thiamine
Answer: (A)
42.What is anticodon related to?
(A) t-RNA
(B) mRNA
(C) r-RNA
(D) genetic RNA
Answer: (A)
43.There are two configurations of forces in a double ring DNA molecule:
(A) By coiling around a main axis
(B) By coiling over each other
(C) Coiled in different forms
(D) Coiled over the protein coat
Answer: (A)
44.The most abundant RNA found in a cell is:
(A) t-RNA
(B) r-RNA
(C) mRNA
(D) hn-t-RNA
Answer: (B)
45.DNA molecule is antiparallel because:
(A) H-bond
(B) Phospho-hyster bond
(C) Disulfide bond
(D) None of these
Answer: (B)
46.The DNA segment which reads the same forward and reverse code is called:
(A) Palindromic DNA
(B) Plasmic DNA
(C) Complementary DNA
(D) Copy DNA
Answer: (A)
47.Purines contained in RNA are:
(A) Guanine and Adenine
(B) Uracil and thiamine
(C) Adenine and cytosine
(D) Uracil and guanine
Answer: (A)
48.The number of hydrogen bonds between cytosine and guanosine is:
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 1
Answer: (B)
49.Who is right for RNA?
(A) A=U
(B) G=C
(C) A+C
(D) AEG
Answer: (A)
50.Which of the following is variable, but is stable for a particular species?
(A) A+ T= G+ C
(B) G+ C= T+ T
(C) A+G = T+C
(D) None of these
Answer: (A)
51.Which is terminal (stop) codon?
(A) UAG (Amber)
(B) UAA (Ocker)
(C) UGA (Opal)
(D) All of these
Answer: (D)
52.There are 100 amino acids in a polypeptide chain. How many types of proteins can be produced under the triplet genetic code?
(A) 20 100 SQUARE
(B) 100 20
(C) 100 x 20 x 3
(D) 100 x 3
Answer: (A)
53.Which of the following has recognition of tRNA?
(A) Anticodon
(B) Loop I
(C) Loop IV
(D) Leave 3-OH
Answer: (A)
54.RNA is synthesized:
(A) On both the rings of DNA
(B) On the sense strand of DNA
(C) On the complementary strand of DNA
(D) On CDNA
Answer: (B)
55.How many codons out of 64 codons of a genetic code synthesize 20 types of amino acids?
(A) 61
(B) 64
(C) 20
(D) 59
Answer: (A)
56.Initiation codon for protein synthesis is:
(A) AUG
(B) GGU
(C) met
(D) AUG and GUG
Answer: (B)
57.Where does the genetic code reside?
(A) r-RNA
(B) t-RNA
(C) 1-DNA
(D) mRNA
Answer: (D)
58.The codon in some DNA is AAA. What will be its anticodon?
(A) UUU
(B) AẠA
(C) TTT
(D) AUG
Answer: (B)
59.Another name for the following alkali is 5 methyl urealis
(A) Adenine
(B) Guanyin
(C) Thiamine
(D) Cytosine
Answer: (C)
60.The following nucleic acids act as both genetic material and catalyst:
(A) DNA
(B) RNA
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)
61.A typical nucleosome contains the number of base pairs in a DNA coil wrapped around a histone octant.
(A) 100
(B) 200
(C) 300
(D) 400
Answer: (B)
62.The number of base pairs in the human genome is
(A) 3 x 106
(B) 3 x 109
(C) 3 x 1012
(D) None of these
Answer: (B)
63.The following human chromosome has the highest number of genes.
(A) Chromosome 1
(B) Chromosome
(C) Chromosome Y
(D) Chromosome 22
Answer: (A)
64.Who among the following first developed fingerprinting technology?
(A) Alec Jefferies
(B) Arthur Kornberg
(C) James Watson
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)
65.The transcription unit of bacteria contains structural genes.
(A) Mono cistronic
(B) Poly cistronic
(C) Non systronic
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)
66.Interspersed gene arrangement is not present in the following.
(A) Bacteria
(B) Plants
(C) Animals
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)
67.The following RNA polymerase transcribes messenger RNA in the eukaryote
(A) Polymerase-I
(B) Polymerase-II
(C) Polymerase-III
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)
68.The direction of polymerization occurs by DNA polymerase during replication.
(A) 5′ to 3′
(B) 3′ to 5′
(C) 5′ to 5′
(D) 3′ to 3′
Answer: (A)
69.Transcription and transposition can take place simultaneously in the following
(A) Bacteria
(B) Sukendraki
(C) Yeast
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)
70.Block is the number of codes.
(A) one
(B) two
(C) three
(D) four
Answer: (C)
71.The nucleotides of DNA molecule are complementary to
(A) Nitrogenous base of tRNA
(B) Nitrogenous base of mRNA
(C) RNA of ribosome
(D) None of these
Answer: (B)
72.With which gene is the enzyme RNA polymerase associated?
(A) controller gene
(B) Promoter gene
(C) Structural genes
(D) operon gene
Answer: (B)
73.How many structural genes are found in the lac operon?
(A) three
(B) five
(C) one
(D) None of these
Answer: (A)
74.Found in pyrimidine of DNA
(A) Thymine and cytosine
(B) Adenine and guanine
(C) Cytosine and uracil
(D) Thiamine and uracil
Answer: (A)
75.How many nucleotide sequences in a messenger RNA constitute a codon for an amino acid?
(A) one
(B) two
(C) three
(D) four
Answer: (C)
76.What is called junk DNA?
(A) coding sequence
(B) Noncoding sequence
(C) Promoter gene
(D) Histone protein
Answer: (B)
77.The sequence of three bases found in transfer RNA which binds to the messenger RNA codon is called
(A) Triple
(B) Non-sense codon
(C) Anticodon
(D) termination codon
Answer: (C)
78.How many nucleotide sequences are required to code for an amino acid in an mRNA?
(A) one
(B) two
(C) three
(D) four
Answer: (A)
79.Which enzyme plays the main role in DNA duplication?
(A) Ligase
(B) RNA polymerase
(C) DNA polymerase
(D) Reverse transcriptase
Answer: (C)
80.What type of bond is formed between two amino acids in protein synthesis? ,
(A) Peptide
(B) Hydrogen
(C) Nucleotide
(D) Nucleoside
Answer: (A)
81.Biddle and Totum’s important experiment on Neurospora causa proved that:
(A) An enzyme modifies a gene
(B) An enzyme produces a gene
(C) Many genes are produced from one gene.
(D) None of these
Answer: (B)
82.The site of DNA at which RNA polymerase attaches during transcription is called
(A) Granhi
(B) Promoter
(C) Insar
(D) regulator
Answer: (B)
83.Which of the following is important for transcription?
(A) DNA methylase
(B) CAAT box
(C) Promoter
(D) DNA polymerase
Answer: (A)
84.What is the function of DNA fingerprinting?
(A) Identifying the true parents of the child
(B) Identifying criminals in the laboratory by forensic science.
(C) Obtaining information about suspected parents
(D) All of these
Answer: (D)
85.During transcription, if the nucleotide sequence of the DNA molecule is coded by ATACG, then the nucleotide sequence in mRNA will be
(A) UATGC
(B) TATGC
(C) TCTGC
(D) UAUGC
Answer: (D)
86.Pyrimidine of RNA is found in
(A) Cytosine and thymine
(B) Adenyl and guanine
(C) Cytosine and uracil
(D) Thiamine and Uracil
Answer: (C)
87.Transcription is terminated by what?
(A) through co-protein
(B) By sigma factor
(C) By Rho-protein
(D) Through omega factor
Answer: (C)
88.What is the transfer of DNA from one bacterial cell to another by bacteriophage called?
(A) Transformation
(B) Transduction
(C) Inversion
(D) translation
Answer: (B)
89.Which RNA has clover leaf model?
(A) t-RNA
(B) r-RNA
(C) hn-RNA
(D) mRNA
Answer: (A)
90.Which enzyme rejoins exon segments after RNA ligation?
(A) RNA polymerase
(B) RNA primase
(C) RNA ligase
(D) RNA Protease
Answer: (C)
91.The number of hydrogen bonds present between adenine and thymine in a DNA molecule is:
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 8
Answer: (A)
92.If an isolated strain of DNA is kept at a temperature of 82-92°C, then
(A) It is converted into RNA
(B) It breaks into two segments
(C) It breaks into many pieces
(D) It opens and both the cords get separated.
Answer: (D)
93.Okazaki fragment in DNA chain extension
(A) Transcription takes place by
(B) Show polymerization in 3′ to 5′ direction and form double branching.
(C) Show the semi-conservative nature of DNA replication.
(D) Shows polymerization in 5′ to 3′ direction and explains 3′ to 5′ DNA replication.
Answer: (A)
94.Who among the following uses RNA as a template for DNA synthesis?
(A) Reverse transcriptase
(B) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
(C) DNA polymerase
(D) RNA polymerase
Answer: (A)
95.What are the two polynucleotide chains of DNA like?
(A) parallel
(B) Discontinuous
(C) antiparallel
(D) Semi-conservative
Answer: (C)
96.Nulic acid is a strong acid. The reason for its acidity is:
(A) Phosphates
(B) Sugar
(C) Nitrogenous alkali
(D) Hydrogen bond
Answer: (A)
97.Which of the following is a nucleotide?
(A) Adenylic and guanylic acids
(B) Cytidylic and uridylic acids
(C) Uridylic and thymidylic acids
(D) all
Answer: (D)
98.Which is adenylic acid?
(A) Adenine + ribose + phosphate
(B) Deoxyribose + phosphate
(C) Adenosine + sugar
(D) Adenine + sugar
Answer: (A)
99.Sugar among higher nucleotides is :
(A) Ribose
(B) Deoxyribose
(C) Hexose
(D) Any pentose
Answer: (D)
100.Whose site is the major groove in the Watson-Crick format DNA model?
(A) Binding of histone proteins
(B) binding of acidic protein
(C) Binding of RNA molecule
(D) binding of glycoprotein
Answer: (A)
SET-10
1.For which of the following diseases, ELISA test should be done?
(A) Malaria
(B) Intermittent fever typhoid
(C) HIV aids
(D) None of these
Answer: (C)
2.By which of the following is dengue spread
(A) cc fly
(B) Mosquito
(C) polluted air
(D) None of these
Answer: (B)
3.Which of the following is found in the core of the virus?
(A) DNA
(B) RNA
(C) Either one
(D) None of these
Answer: (C)
4.Influenza is caused by which of the following?
(A) Info virus
(B) Mixo virus
(C) Herpes virus
(D) None of these
Answer: (B)
5.The pathogen of elephantiasis is
(A) Wucheria
(B) Ascaris
(C) Tinea
(D) None of these
Answer: (A)
6.The originator of the word antibiotic is
(A) Fleming
(B) Jenner
(C) Waxmon
(D) None of these
Answer: (B)
7.Which of the following is a sexually transmitted disease?
(A) AIDS
(B) Syphilis
(C) Gonorrhea
(D) All of these
Answer: (D)
8.T lymphocytes are produced:
(A) from the stomach
(B) From thymus
(C) From the liver
(D) from bone marrow
Answer: (D)
9.Non-virulent viral agents are:
(A) Polio
(B) Tuberculosis
(C) Jaundice
(D) Cancer
Answer: (D)
10.Which of the following is a viral disease?
(A) Cholera
(B) Malaria
(C) Polio
(D) All of these
Answer: (C)
11.Dynoglobulin found in blood is
(A) IgA
(B) IgD
(C) IgG
(D) IgM
Answer: (D)
12.Which of the following is a sexually transmitted disease:
(A) Gonorinella
(B) Malaria
(C) Cholera
(D) None of these
Answer: (A)
13.The cause of cancer is:
(A) Oncogenes
(B) Non-virulent virus
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Answer: (C)
14.Gonorrhea is:
(A) Water borne diseases
(B) air borne diseases
(C) Sexually transmitted diseases
(D) is not a disease
Answer: (C)
15.Histamine is related to :
(A) indifferent
(B) B-lymphocyte
(C) Antibody
(D) allergy
Answer: (D)
16.What causes dengue fever?
(A) bacteria
(B) Virus
(C) Protozoa
(D) Worm
Answer: (B)
17.Sexually transmitted disease is:
(A) Chlamydia
(B) AIDS
(C) Herpes
(D) All of these
Answer: (D)
18.For which disease is “Widal test” done?
(A) Malaria
(B) Typhoid
(C) Dengue
(D) None of these
Answer: (B)
19.Which of the following diseases is transmitted by protozoan parasites?
(A) Amoebiasis
(B) Malaria
(C) Kala-azar
(D) all
Answer: (D)
20.Stuff that poisons
(A) non-virulent virus
(B) Bacteriophage
(C) T.M.V.
(D) None
Answer: (A)
21.What is brown sugar chemically?
(A) Diacetyl morphine hydrochloride
(B) Theophylline
(C) Lorazepam
(D) Methedrine
Answer: (D)
22.Use of antihistamines and steroids provides quick relief:
(A) Allergy
(B) From Nausea
(C) from cough
(D) from headache
Answer: (A)
23.Which cells are most affected in AIDS:
(A) B-cells
(B) T-cells
(C) Monocytes
(D) Neutrophils
Answer: (B)
24.The most common cancer in humans is?
(A) Melanoma
(B) Lymphoma
(C) Sarcoma
(D) Kasnoma
Answer: (D)
25.Vaccination protects a person from disease because it:
(A) Helps in improving digestion
(B) Increases RBC count.
(C) produces antibodies
(D) Maintains the body’s thermal system.
Answer: (C)
26.LSD is obtained from:
(A) from fungus
(B) From lichen
(C) From algae
(D) from bacteria
Answer: (A)
27.Testing is done by PCR:
(A) HIV
(B) Cancer
(C) Tuberculosis
(D) Cholera
Answer: (A)
28.World AIDS Day is :
(A) 1 May
(B) 20 December
(C) 1 June
(D) 1 December
Answer: (D)
29.The cause of AIDS is:
(A) Bacteria
(B) Protozoa
(C) HIV virus
(D) Trichomonas
Answer: (C)
30.Which cell does the HIV virus, the cause of AIDS, destroy first?
(A) Helper T-lymphocyte
(B) B-lymphocyte
(C) Leukocytes
(D) Thrombolite
Answer: (A)
31.Which vaccine is used for tuberculosis?
(A) BCG
(B) DPT
(C) TT
(D. ALL OF THE ABOVE
Answer: (A)
32.Oncogene is responsible for which of the following?
(A) Cancer
(B) AIDS
(C) Tuberculosis
(D) Polio
Answer: (A)
33.Wuchereria bancrofti causes filariasis in humans. Which group does it belong to:
(A) Protozoa
(C) Virus
(B) bacteria
(D) Helmins
Answer: (D)
34.Dipal antigen vaccine is not used
(A) For diphtheria
(B) For pertussis
(C) For typhoid
(D) for tetanus
Answer: (A)
35.HIV attacks which of the following cells?
(A) B-cell
(P) T-cell
(C) Epithelial cell
(D) T helper cell
Answer: (D)
36.Substances against which there is an immune response are called.
(A) Allergen
(B) vaccine
(C) Antibody
(D) Antigen
Answer: (A)
37.Antibodies formed in allergies are
(A) IgA type
(B) IgE type
(C) IgM type
(D) IgG type
Answer: (B)
38.The chemicals released due to allergy are
(A) Histamine
(B) Serotonin
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Answer: (C)
39.Which of the following is not a disease caused by bacteria?
(A) Typhoid
(B) Leprosy
(C) Diphtheria
(D) Influenza
Answer: (D)
40.The cause of elephantiasis is
(A) Ascaris
(B) Tinea
(C) Wuchereria
(D) Entamoeba
Answer: (C)
41.The main ingredient of tobacco is:
(A) Cocaine
(B) Morphine
(C) Nicotine
(D) Thiamine
Answer: (C)
42.What causes TB?
(A) From gonorrhea
(B) Mycobacterium
(C) Treponema
(D) From Bacillus
Answer: (B)
43.What is virus caused disease?
(A) Malaria
(B) Influenza
(C) Diphtheria
(D) syphilis
Answer: (B)
44.What causes smallpox?
(A) Virus
(B) bacteria
(C) Fungi
(D) Mosquito
Answer: (A)
45.What causes chickenpox?
(A) Adeno virus
(B) Varicella virus
(C) Bacteriophage T2
(D) SV 40 virus
Answer: (B)
46.Which organ is adversely affected by alcohol?
(A) heart
(B) liver
(C) brain
(D) Lung
Answer: (B)
47.The medicine that induces deep sleep is:
(A) Stimulenta
(B) Hallucinogen
(C) Sedative owner
(D) Opiate narcotic
Answer: (C)
48.Nicotine is
(A) alkaline
(B) Amino acid
(C) Amino acid
(D) Vitamin
Answer: (A)
49.What is the cause of AIDS?
(A) Trichomonas
(B) HIV
(C) Hepatitis E
(D) Bacillus anthesis
Answer: (B)
50.Which of these is a protozoa-borne disease?
(A) Cholera
(B) Tuberculosis
(C) Malaria
(D) AIDS
Answer: (C)
51.Which of these is a bacteria-borne disease?
(A) Syphilis
(B) Herpes
(C) Papilloma
(D) All of these
Answer: (A)
52.Where are T-lymphocytes produced?
(A) in thymus
(B) in the stomach
(C) in the liver
(D) In bone marrow
Answer: (D)
53.Which cells are responsible for complete suppression of the immune system?
(A) chyme cells
(B) Helper T-cells
(C) Inhibitory T-cell
(D) memory cells
Answer: (C)
54.What lives on the lymphocyte?
(A) IgG
(B) IgM
(C) IgD
(D) IgE
Answer: (C)
55.Who introduced rabies vaccine?
(A) Jenner
(B) Pasteur
(C) Darwin
(D) Lamarck
Answer: (B)
56.Which vaccine should be given for diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough etc.?
(A) BCG
(B) DTP-Hib
(C) Hepatitis-B
(D) None of these
Answer: (B)
57.Histamine is related to :
(A) Apathy
(B) From B-lymphocyte
(C) from antibodies
(D) Allergy
Answer: (D)
58.Whose study is called oncology?
(A) Cholera
(B) Leprosy
(C) Tumor
(D) Malaria
Answer: (C)
59.Which of the following is related to cancer?
(A) Lipona
(B) Leukemia
(C) Lymphoma
(D) All of these
Answer: (D)
60.The treatment of cancer is:
(A) Surgery
(B) Chemotherapy
(C) Radiotherapy
(D) All of these
Answer: (D)
61.Which is mutagen?
(A) X-ray
(B) Radioactive ray
(C) Mustard gas
(D) All of these
Answer: (D)
62.Which of the following is an anesthetic substance?
(A) Tobacco
(B) Liquor or alcohol
(C) Hashish or Heroin More
(D) Cannabis or Opium
Answer: (A)
63.Which of the following groups are sensory/narcotic substances?
(A) Morphine, cocaine and tea
(B) Heroin, cocaine and tobacco
(C) Brown sugar, hashish and coffee
(D) Cocaine, heroin and hashish
Answer: (D)
64.Which of the following is a disease spread through infected drinking water?
(A) Intermittent fever or typhoid
(B) Malaria
(C) Filaria
(D) black fever
Answer: (A)
65.Which of the following is air borne disease?
(A) Tuberculosis
(B) Diphtheria
(C) Pneumonia
(D) All of these
Answer: (C)
66.What is polio called in medical language?
(A) Infantile paralysis
(B) Jalantaka
(C) Paralysis of the jaw
(D) All of these
Answer: (A)
67.What is detected by Widal test?
(A) AIDS
(B) Malaria
(C) Tuberculosis
(D) Typhoid
Answer: (D)
68.What is the main stage of infection of malaria parasite?
(A) Dracajuite
(B) Sporozoite
(C) Marazwite
(D) Cryptozoite
Answer: (B)
69.Who among the following is the carrier of malaria parasite?
(A) Female Culex
(B) Female Anopheles
(C) Female sand fly
(D) All of these
Answer: (B)
70.Which of these is a disease caused by fungus?
(A) Tuberculosis
(B) Smallpox
(C) Ringworm and scaly lesions.
(D) Shlipada
Answer: (C)
71.Which of the following is not a worm-borne infectious disease?
(A) Escharista
(B) Filaria
(C) Hepatitis
(D) Acyclocystosis
Answer: (C)
72.Which of these diseases is transmitted by protozoan parasites?
(A) Amoeba
(B) Malaria
(C) Black fever
(D) All of these
Answer: (D)
73.Medicines that destroy germs in the patient’s body are:
(A) Antibiotics
(B) vaccine
(C) Opioids
(D) All of these
Answer: (A)
74.The immunity which is present in humans from the time of birth is called
(A) innate immunity
(B) acquired immunity
(C) Self defense
(D) passive immunity
Answer: (A)
75.Which of the following is an example of auto defense?
(A) Asthma
(B) Rheumatoid arthritis
(C) By treating cancer
(D) None of these
Answer: (B)
76.Which of these is retrovirus?
(A) Human immunodeficiency virus
(B) Hepatitis virus
(C) Mycovirus influenzae
(D) None of these
Answer: (A)
77.Which of these is a disease causing allergy?
(A) Skin cancer
(B) Hay fever
(C) Enteric fever
(D) Goiter
Answer: (B)
78.Which of the following is not popular for the treatment of cancer?
(A) Chemotherapy
(B) Radiotherapy
(C) surgery
(D) Physiotherapy
Answer: (D)
79.The screening test for AIDS is :
(A) Western Bloat
(B) Elisa
(C) PCR
(D) Southern Bloat
Answer: (B)
80.Allergic action starts from the antibodies of the group:
(A) IgG
(B) IgE
(C) IgM
(D) IgA
Answer: (B)
81.The group of organisms that defines the fertility of the land is
(A) Microbes
(B) Organic fertilizer
(C) yeast
(D) Biological disinfectant,
Answer: (B)
82.The main source of organic fertilizer is
(A) Green algae
(B) Yeast
(C) bacteria
(D) Red algae
Answer: (A)
83.Oncology is the study of what?
(A) Cancer
(B) Oncogenes
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) virus
Answer: (A)
84.is a sexually transmitted disease
(A) Measles
(B) TB
(C) Gonorrhea
(D) Typhoid
Answer: (C)
85.What causes cancer?
(A) by bacteria
(B) through oncogenes
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Answer: (B)
86.Which of these is a bacterial disease?
(A) Leprosy
(B) Tuberculosis
(C) Cholera
(D) All of these
Answer: (D)
87.Which of the following is an example of an autoimmune disease?
(A) Asthma
(B) Rheumatoid arthritis
(C) Cancer
(D) None of these
Answer: (B)
88.Which metabolic change is quickly reflected in the body due to tobacco consumption:
(A) Secretion of catecholamines into the blood due to stimulation of adrenal glands
(B) Sudden increase in the person’s blood pressure and heart beat rate.
(C) Both of these (‘A’ and ‘B’)
(D) None of these
Answer: (C)
89.Which of these diseases is caused by allergen?
(A) Skin cancer
(B) Hay fever
(C) Enteric fever
(D) Goiter
Answer: (B)
90.Which of the following are mainly used for oxygen production in spacecraft?
(A) Algae
(B) Fungi
(C) Bryofats
(D) None of these
Answer: (A)
91.Discovered bacteria
(A) Coach
(B) Leeuwenhoek
(C) Pasteur
(D) None of these
Answer: (B)
92.Dough (stained flour) becomes soft (light) due to which of the following?
(A) Carbon dioxide
(B) Methane
(C) Oxygen
(D) None of these
Answer: (A)
93.The process of heating a liquid at 70-80 centigrade and then cooling it rapidly is called.
(A) Mitturization
(B) Pasteurization
(C) Liquefaction
(D) None of these
Answer: (B)
94.Curd and cheese (yort and cheese) are products
(A) of fermentation
(B) Pasteurization
(C) Dehydration
(D) None of these
Answer: (A)
95.Which of the following increases when domestic runoff water (sewage) gets into reservoirs, rivers and lakes?
(A) B.O.D.
(B) COD
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Answer (C)
96.Which microorganism is used in the flour of Idli-Dosa?
(A) Yeast
(B) bacteria
(C) Virus
(D) All of these
Answer: (A)
97.Penicillin antibiotic is produced:
(A) Plants
(B) Virus
(C) P. notum
(D) Worm
Answer: (C)
98.Which of the following is bio-fertilizer
(A) Mycorrhiza
(B) did
(C) Azobacter
(D) All of these
Answer: (D)
99.Used in making bread:
(A) bacteria
(B) Baker’s yeast
(C) Pseudomonas
(D) None of these
Answer: (B)
100.SCP is obtained :
(A) Chlorella
(B) Spirulina
(C) Senedesmus
(D) All of these
Answer: (D)